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Welcome to the Personal Training Certification Exam Prep Course You are about to start an intensive 9-day course covering all the topics you need to know for the major certification exams. Although the course is designed to be done a little each day, you can work at your own pace. You can also retake any portion of the course as many times as you like until you feel comfortable with the subject material.

Access Instructions The course consists of 28 quizzes and one final exam. Each quiz requires you to login with a username and password. IMPORTANT: Your username is your first name (as entered while paying for the course). Your passwords are shown on page 2 of this document below after the link to each quiz. Each quiz uses a unique password. Do not use your shopping cart user name or password on the quizzes. Before you jump into the first day it is a good idea to check out our tutorial

at

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/znavigating.html

A Note about Different Certifications Fitness is not an exact science. And in many cases the various certification providers have different philosophies. We have attempted to identify these differences on each question where the guidelines differ between certifications. However, if you encounter an answer which is different than what your certification provider is promoting, please let us know so we can identify the difference on the quiz. There is a link under each quiz that allows you to report a problem and add additional information to each question. Your help is greatly appreciated! And now onto the course...

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Day 1: Anatomy & Physiology Quiz 1 http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a1yn12.html Password: fitness

Quiz 2 http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a2wmx4.html Password: dips

Quiz 3 http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a3z4et.html Password: superset

Day 2: Client Assessment Quiz 1 http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z2c12Rs7.html Password: spindle

Quiz 2 http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z2c2Fa61.html Password: muscle

Quiz 3: Anatomy Review

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z2a4jL8x.html Password: flexion

Day 3: Program Design Quiz 1

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z3p1yt5a.html Password: waiver

Quiz 2

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http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z3p29ds1.html Password: treadmill

Quiz 3: Anatomy Review

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z3a5j8gf.html Password: calorie

Day 4: Exercise Technique Quiz 1

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e1zi43.html Password: joint

Quiz 2

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e2i9km.html Password: tendon

Quiz 3: Anatomy Review

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4a6h3d2.html Password: stretch

Day 5: Safety, Legal and Business Issues Quiz 1

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z5s1d7t5.html Password: heat

Quiz 2

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z5s2cv35.html Password: tibia

Quiz 3: Anatomy Review

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z5a7swq9.html Password: spine

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Day 6: Nutrition Quiz 1

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z6n1k3s7.html Password: heart

Quiz 2

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z6n2jf84.html Password: tricep

Quiz 3: Anatomy Review

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z6a8gw8j.html Password: skull

Day 7: Training Special Populations Quiz 1

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z7sp1jh2.html Password: radius

Quiz 2

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z7sp2d65.html Password: rotation

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Day 8: Certification Specific Review

For each certification listed below, you can review the exam discussions and then take a quiz that is focused on that particular certification. For extra practice, you can take all the quizzes. The password for all Day 8 quizzes is cardio. ACE – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z78ace.html ACSM – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z71acsm.html AFAA – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z72afaa.html ISSA – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z73issa.html NASM – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z74nasm.html NCSF – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z75ncsf.html NESTA – http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z76nesta.html NSCA - http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z77nsca.html

Day 9: The Final Exam Take the Final Exam

http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z8f184rt.html Password: ventricle

A Few Final Words

http://www.viewletcentral.com/vc/viewlet/554210936/ No Password Required

Need Help? Email support is available for the course is available by sending an email to [email protected] Enjoy the prep course. And good luck on your exam! - Katie

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Personal Trainer Certification Exam Prep Course By the Personal Trainers at

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Table of Contents How to Use this Course ............................................................................................9 Accessing the Online Content ..................................................................................9 A Note about Different Certifications ......................................................................9 Day 1, Quiz 1: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology .............................................. 10 Answers .............................................................................................................. 17 Day 1, Quiz 2: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology .............................................. 19 Answers .............................................................................................................. 25 Day 1, Quiz 3: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology .............................................. 27 Answers .............................................................................................................. 34 Day 2, Quiz 1: Client Assessment ......................................................................... 36 Answers .............................................................................................................. 41 Day 2, Quiz 2: Client Assessment ......................................................................... 43 Answers .............................................................................................................. 48 Day 2, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review .......................................................................... 50 Answers .............................................................................................................. 54 Day 3, Quiz 1: Program Design ............................................................................ 55 Answers .............................................................................................................. 60 Day 3, Quiz 2: Program Design ............................................................................ 62 Answers .............................................................................................................. 67 Day 3, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review .......................................................................... 69 Answers .............................................................................................................. 72 Day 4, Quiz 1: Exercise Techniques ..................................................................... 73 Answers .............................................................................................................. 80 Day 4, Quiz 2: Exercise Techniques ..................................................................... 82 Answers .............................................................................................................. 90 Day 4, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review .......................................................................... 92 Answers .............................................................................................................. 94 Day 5, Quiz 1: Safety, Legal and Business Issues ................................................ 95 Answers ............................................................................................................ 101 Day 5, Quiz 2: Safety, Legal and Business Issues .............................................. 103

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Answers ............................................................................................................ 109 Day 5, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review ........................................................................ 111 Answers ............................................................................................................ 113 Day 6, Quiz 1: Nutrition ...................................................................................... 114 Answers ............................................................................................................ 120 Day 6, Quiz 2: Nutrition ...................................................................................... 122 Answers ............................................................................................................ 128 Day 6, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review ........................................................................ 130 Answers ............................................................................................................ 132 Day 7, Quiz 1: Training Special Populations ...................................................... 133 Answers ............................................................................................................ 137 Day 7, Quiz 2: Training Special Populations ...................................................... 138 Answers ............................................................................................................ 142 Day 8: Links to Certification Specific Exam Information .................................. 144 Day 8 ACE Quiz.................................................................................................. 145 Answers ............................................................................................................ 153 Day 8: ACSM Quiz ............................................................................................. 156 Answers ............................................................................................................ 164 Day 8 AFAA Quiz ............................................................................................... 167 Answers ............................................................................................................ 172 Day 8 ISSA Quiz ................................................................................................. 174 Answers ............................................................................................................ 179 Day 8: NASM Quiz ............................................................................................. 181 Answers ............................................................................................................ 188 Day 8 NSCA Quiz ............................................................................................... 190 Answers ............................................................................................................ 197 Day 8 NCSF Quiz................................................................................................ 200 Answers ............................................................................................................ 206 Day 8 NESTA Quiz ............................................................................................. 208 Answers ............................................................................................................ 213 Day 9: The Final Exam ....................................................................................... 215 Day 9: Final Exam Answers ............................................................................ 231

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How to Use this Course Welcome to the Personal Training Certification Exam Prep Course. You are about to start an intensive eight-day course covering all of the topics you need to know for the major certification exams. Although the course is designed to be done a little each day, you can work at your own pace. You can also retake any portion of the course as many times as you like until you feel comfortable with the subject material.

Accessing the Online Content While this book contains the complete content of the course, you also get access to our interactive testing engine. Our online tests will automatically keep track of your score and tell you if you have passed the test. The online tests have full-color images that are often larger in size than the ones contained here due to the limitations of book publishing. The course consists of 754 questions spread over 28 quizzes and one final exam.

A +ote about Different Certifications

Fitness is not an exact science, and in many cases the various certification providers have different philosophies. We have attempted to identify these differences on each question where the guidelines differ between certifications. However, if you encounter an answer that is different than what your certification provider is promoting, please let us know so we can identify the difference on the quiz. There is a link under each quiz that allows you to report a problem and add additional information to each question.

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Day 1, Quiz 1: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology Welcome to Day 1 of our Certification Prep Course. Over the next eight days you will review all the topics covered on the certification exams. Each day will consist of review sessions and quizzes that target a specific topic. On most days you will take three quizzes. On Day 8, you will have a full-length practice exam covering all topics.

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • • •

The Nervous System The Cardiovascular System The Respiratory System ATP Glycolysis

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Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 1 1. The ability of nerves to communicate with muscles is called: □ □ □ □

neuromuscular efficiency proprioception neural transmitters nervous system

2. Motor neurons transmit messages from ___________ to effector sites. □ □ □ □ □ □ □

the brain the muscles the joints the spinal cord the brain and muscles the brain and spinal cord all of the above

3. When the neuromuscular system responds to a stimulus it is called: □ □ □ □

cause and effect mechanoreception motor function arthrokinematics

4. Which of the following refers to the synchronization of motor units within a muscle? □ □ □ □

synapse sequencing intramuscular coordination intermuscular coordination synaptic response

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5. Blood is mostly made up of: □ □ □ □

water and nutrients nutrients and globulins plasma and wastes plasma and water

6. The opening of the bronchial tubes is consistent with an activation of the: □ □ □ □

sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system lymphatic system endocrine system

7. Which system is responsible for immune response? □ □ □ □

sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system lymphatic system respiratory system

8. The pulmonary vein delivers blood to the: □ □ □ □

lungs aorta left ventricle left atrium

9. Smooth muscles are controlled by the: □ □ □ □

central nervous system autonomic nervous system peripheral nervous system voluntary nervous system

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10. Which of the following statements is true of a blood pH level of 7.5? □ □ □ □

This is considered within part of the normal range. Body functions begin to deteriorate at this level. This is usually fatal. This is rare but still considered safe.

11. Which of the following statements is true of a blood pH level of 7.85? □ □ □ □

This is considered within normal range. Body functions begin to deteriorate at this level. This is usually fatal. This is rare but still considered safe.

12. The cells of the nervous system that transmit messages are called: □ □ □ □

astrocytes glycogens proteins neurons

13. Which type of receptor responds to pressure and movement? □ □ □ □

chemoreceptors thermoreceptors mechanoreceptors photoreceptors

14. Which of the following is an accurate description of smooth muscle? □ □ □ □

It has thousands of micro striations. It is part of the voluntary nervous system. It contracts the small intestine. It responds well to resistance training.

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15. A gymnast is most likely to be: □ □ □ □

hypomobile hypermobile hypoflexible superflexible

16. True or False? The cardiac muscle rests during diastole. 17. Spine and pelvic alignment is aided by: □ □ □ □

abdominal extension abdominal contraction Latissimus Dorsi flexion Latissimus Dorsi extension

18. Bending your spine backward is an example of: □ □ □ □

spinal flexion spinal adduction spinal abduction spinal extension

19. True or False? Cardiac threshold is equal to the heart rate times the stroke volume. 20. Stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected per beat by the ________. □ □ □ □

left ventricle femoral artery aorta left atrium

21. Anaerobic glycolysis produces: □ □ □ □

glucose homeostasis lactic acid ADP

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22. What term describes a metabolic pathway that does not use oxygen? □ □ □ □

ATP anaerobic lactic acid glycolysis

23. Which of the following statements is accurate concerning VO2 Max? □ VO2 Max is the volume of oxygen you can consume while exercising at 70% target heart rate. □ VO2 Max is limited by the ability of the cardiovascular and pulmonary systems to transport the oxygen. □ VO2 Max can be measured during a brisk walk. □ VO2 Max is considered healthy if scores do not exceed 30 ml/kg/min.

24. Aerobic activity produces: □ □ □ □

carbon dioxide water heat all of the above

25. A sprinter gets the most energy from ______ during a race. □ □ □ □

calories glucose ATP glycolysis

26. The heart pumps an average of _____ liters of blood through the body. □ □ □ □

2 6 12 18

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27. Which of the following is NOT a bone cell? □ □ □ □

ostecysts osteoclasts osteoblasts osteocytes

28. The larger, inferiorly located chambers of the heart are known as the: □ □ □ □

atria ventricles aorta capillaries

29. True or False? The inhalation of air is called inspiration. 30. The smallest vessels where oxygen is exchanged between tissues are the: □ □ □ □

capillaries white cells veins lungs

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Answers 1. Neuromuscular efficiency 2. The brain and spinal cord 3. Motor function 4. Intramuscular coordination 5. Plasma and water 6. Sympathetic nervous system – The sympathetic nervous system is associated with the body’s stress response, and the opening of the bronchial tubes is a stress response. 7. Lymphatic system – The lymphatic system controls the body’s immune response, including the production of antibodies. 8. Left atrium 9. Autonomic nervous system – Smooth muscles are found in the veins, arteries and internal organs, like the bladder, and function at an involuntary level. 10. Body functions begin to deteriorate at this level. Normal blood pH range is 7.35 to 7.45. Levels higher than this are dangerous. 11. This is usually fatal. Normal blood pH range is 7.35 to 7.45. A level of 7.85 is excessively high. 12. Neurons – These cells transmit messages, while nervous system support cells help the neurons to transmit messages. 13. Mechanoreceptors – Thermoreceptors respond to heat; photoreceptors respond to light; and chemoreceptors respond to chemicals. 14. Contract the small intestine – Smooth muscle has no striations and is found in veins, arteries and internal organs, like the small intestine. 15. Hypermobile – While most people are hypormobile (meaning they have reduced flexibility), gymnasts are usually hypermobile (with increased flexibility). 16. True – The cardiac muscle rests as the ventricles fill with blood during diastole and then pumps during systole. 17. Abdominal contraction – Proper contraction and tone of the abdominal muscles assist in keeping the spine and pelvis properly aligned.

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18. Spinal extension – Since the spine cannot move away from (abduction) or toward (adduction) the center of the body (because the spine IS the center of the body), bending the spine backward is an example of an extension. 19. False – Cardiac OUTPUT is equal to heart rate times stroke volume. 20. Left ventricle – The left ventricle ejects blood from the heart. Normally, only about two-thirds of the blood in the ventricle is put out with each beat. What blood is actually pumped from the left ventricle is the stroke volume and it, together with the heart rate, determines the cardiac output. 21. Lactic acid – This is the byproduct of anaerobic glycolysis. 22. Anaerobic 23. VO2 Max is limited by the ability of the cardiovascular and pulmonary systems to transport the oxygen – The other statements are NOT true because VO2 Max is the maximum capacity (not 70%) to transport and use oxygen during exercise, thus VO2 Max cannot be measured during a brisk walk (not high enough intensity). A score of 45 ml/kg/min is typical for an untrained adult so levels below 30 ml/kg/min are not necessarily healthy. 24. All of the above – Aerobic activity produces carbon dioxide, water and heat. 25. ATP – This is the main energy source utilized during short bursts of intense activity such as sprinting. 26. 6 – The body contains 5 to 6 liters of blood on average. 27. Ostecysts 28. Ventricles – The atria are superior to the ventricles and are smaller, while the aorta and capillaries are blood vessels. 29. True – The technical terms for breathing are inspiration (inhaling) and expiration (exhaling). 30. Capillaries – Veins are larger than capillaries and transport mostly deoxygenated blood.

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Day 1, Quiz 2: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • The Skeletal System • Kinesiology

Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 2

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Question 1-13. Identify the bone that each arrow is pointing to. Choose from the following: Clavicle Fibula Femur Humerus Pelvis Patella Phalanges Radius Scapula Sternum Skull Tibia Ulna

Note: A higher resolution, color image is available at http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a2wmx4.html

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14. The shoulder uses the rotator cuff for: □ □ □ □

rotation abduction adduction hyperextension

15. Lordosis is better known as: □ □ □ □ □

tennis elbow jumper's knee swayback hunchback fascia

16. Which of the following contains the most bones? □ □ □ □

inner ear middle ear axial skeleton appendicular skeleton

17. Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone? □ □ □ □ □

femur phalanges patella clavicle malleus

18. What provides stability during movement? □ □ □ □

tendon muscle ligament none of the above

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19. The human hand is made up of: □ □ □ □

10 phalanges, 10 metacarpals 5 phalanges, 10 metacarpals 15 phalanges, 5 metacarpals 14 phalanges, 5 metacarpals

20. Which of these stores energy for the body? □ □ □ □ □

calories proteins glucose lipids red blood cells

21. The joints found between intervertebral discs and spinal bones are known as: □ □ □ □ □

synovial joints non-synovial joints fibrous joints cartilaginous joints cartilage

22. Moderate intensity exercise _________ the size and strength of ligaments. □ increases □ decreases □ does not affect 23. Moderate intensity exercise _________ the size and strength of tendons. □ increases □ decreases □ does not affect

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24. A person with a high VO2 level will be able to perform peak intensity activity _________ compared to a person with lower VO2 levels. □ for a longer amount of time □ for a shorter amount of time □ for the same amount of time 25. True or False? Lactic acid causes fatigue during anaerobic activity? 26. While exercising, diastolic pressure __________ and systolic pressure _________. □ □ □ □

remains unchanged, increases increases, decreases decreases, decreases increases, increases

27. Which hormone is most useful in raising calcium levels? □ □ □ □

calcitonin parathyroid estrogen testosterone

28. Tendons connect bone to: □ □ □ □

muscle joints bones ligaments

29. The spine, thorax and pelvis are all part of the: □ □ □ □

core nervous system cardiorespiratory system cardiovascular system

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30. The Golgi Tendon Organ: □ □ □ □

measures the tension that each muscle contraction builds up regenerates damaged soft tissues is responsible for the pain response is a common cause of “tennis elbow”

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Answers 1. Skull 2. Scapula 3. Clavicle 4. Sternum 5. Humerus 6. Radius 7. Pelvis 8. Ulna 9. Femur 10. Patella 11. Fibula 12. Tibia 13. Phalanges 14. Rotation – The rotator cuff serves to rotate the shoulder. 15. Swayback – Hunchback is the more commonly known term for kyphosis. 16. Appendicular skeleton – The appendicular skeleton consists of all of your limbs and contains many more bones than the ear and axial skeleton. 17. Patella – Sesamoid bones are typically found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint, such as in the hand, knee and foot. Functionally, they act to protect the tendon and to increase its mechanical effect. 18. Ligament – Ligaments hold things together while tendons and muscles serve to create movement. 19. 14 phalanges, 5 metacarpals. The thumb has one less bone than the other fingers. 20. Lipids – Lipids are fats and store energy and nutrients for the body. 21. Cartilaginous joints – Intervertebral discs help to form the joints of the spine, and layers of cartilage attach the intervertebral discs to the spinal bones. 22. Increase 23. Increase 24. Longer – A higher level of VO2 allows for more glucose breakdown, which allows for longer periods of high-intensity activity. 25 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

25. True – Build up of lactic acid in the muscles causes fatigue during anaerobic exercise. 26. Diastolic remains unchanged while systolic increases – Systolic pressure increases because the heart must pump harder during exercise, but diastolic pressure remains the same because the heart is resting. 27. Parathyroid – Parathyroid is the primary hormone utilized in the regulation of calcium. Calcitonin can also improve calcium uptake, but it is usually only effective in children and osteoporosis patients. 28. Muscle 29. Core – The core is the center of the body composed primarily of the spine, thorax and pelvis. 30. Measures the tension that each muscle builds up – Because a Golgi tendon organ exists in serial connection with muscle fibers, it can measure the tension that each muscle contraction builds up.

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Day 1, Quiz 3: Anatomy, Physiology, Kinesiology

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • The Muscular System • More Kinesiology

Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 3

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Question 1-9. Identify the muscle that each arrow is pointing to.

Choose from the following: Adductors Biceps Deltoid Erector Spinae External Obliques Forearm Gastrocnemius Gluteus Maximus Gluteus Medius Hamstrings Internal Obliques Latissimus Dorsi Pectorals Quadriceps Rhomboids Rotator Cuff Soleus Tibialis Anterior Trapezius Triceps

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Question 10-21. Identify the muscle that each arrow is pointing to. Choose from the following: Adductors Biceps Deltoid Erector Spinae External Obliques Forearm Gastrocnemius Gluteus Maximus Gluteus Medius Hamstrings Internal Obliques Latissimus Dorsi Pectorals Quadriceps Rhomboids Rotator Cuff Soleus Tibialis Anterior Trapezius Triceps

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22. A sarcomere: □ □ □ □ □

is responsible for muscle contraction is the segment between two neighboring Z-lines gives muscles their striated appearance all of the above none of the above

23. Ligaments connect bone to: □ □ □ □

muscle joints bone tendons

24. Muscle activity that lengthens the muscle is referred to as: □ □ □ □

eccentric isometric concentric procentric

25. A muscle that aids the action of a prime mover is called a(n): □ □ □ □

agonist antagonist stabilizer synergist

26. A muscle that relaxes while another contracts is called a(n): □ □ □ □

agonist antagonist stabilizer synergist

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27. When bending the elbow the triceps are the: □ □ □ □

agonist antagonist stabilizer synergist

28. A muscle that can move two joints is: □ □ □ □

articulate triarticulate diarticulate biarticulate

29. The increase of the size of an organ or tissue is referred to as: □ □ □ □

muscle spindle hypertrophy endurance maximal strength

30. The bicep performs which function? □ □ □ □

prime mover motive muscles stabilizer all of the above

31. Latissimus Dorsi performs which of the following? □ □ □ □

shoulder flexion shoulder adduction shoulder extension shoulder adduction and extension

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32. What is the MAIN function of Gluteus Medius? □ □ □ □

hip flexion hip extension hip adduction hip abduction

33. Posterior Deltoid performs which of the following? □ □ □ □

shoulder horizontal abduction shoulder internal rotation shoulder extension and internal rotation shoulder horizontal abduction and extension

34. From a normal standing position, pointing your toes to the side is an example of: □ □ □ □

knee flexion hip flexion hip external rotation hip extension

35. The muscles of the rotator cuff keep tension on the: □ □ □ □

deltoids humerus rhomboids latissimus dorsi

36. Which is NOT a muscle of the rotator cuff? □ □ □ □

supraspinatus supracapularis teres minor all of the above are rotator cuff muscles

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37. Which of the following is characteristic of Type II muscle fibers? □ □ □ □

resistant to fatigue aid good posture slow twitch fast twitch

38. True or False? Endurance training changes muscle composition from Type II to Type I. 39. True or False? The synergist controls the joint during movement. 40. Which muscles does the Achilles tendon connect to the calcaneus? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

hamstring gastrocnemius soleus quadriceps

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Answers 1. Rotator Cuff 2. Deltoid 3. Pectorals 4. Biceps 5. External Obliques 6. Quadriceps 7. Tibilais Anterior 8. Internal Obliques 9. Adductors 10. Deltoid 11. Rhomboids 12. Erector Spinae 13. Hamstrings 14. Trapezius 15. Triceps 16. Latissimus Dorsi 17. Forearm 18. Gluteus Medius 19. Gluteus Maximus 20. Gastrocnemius 21. Soleus 22. All of the above – A sarcomere is the segment between two neighboring z-lines that is responsible for muscle contraction and gives muscles their striated appearance. 23. Bone 24. Eccentric – Concentric shortens the muscle, and isometric has no change in length. 25. Synergist 26. Antagonist – The antagonist opposes the agonist, or prime mover, and lengthens as the agonist contracts.

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27. Antagonist – When bending the elbow, the biceps contract (agonist) and the triceps lengthen (antogonist). 28. Biarticulate – Articulate moves one joint; triarticulate moves three joints. 29. Hypertrophy 30. All of the above – The biceps perform different functions according to what movement is being made. For example, during a barbell curl, the biceps are the primary working muscles, also known as the motive muscles. However, during deadlifts the biceps stay stiff and taut to steady the forearm and in doing so, take on the role of stabilizer. 31. Shoulder adduction and extention – Latissimus dorsi performs shoulder adduction and extension but not flexion. 32. Hip abduction – Note: If you are studying for Can-Fit-Pro, their Foundations of Personal Training book lists hip extension as another function of the Gluteus Medius. In addition, the ACE text states that it performs hip extension (although not as the main function). 33. Shoulder horizontal abduction and extension 34. Hip external rotation – From a normal standing position, the entire hip is being rotated toward the outside (external) when you point your toes out. 35. Humerus 36. Supracapularis – This is a made-up choice designed to sound like subscapularis, which is a rotator cuff muscle. 37. Fast twitch – These fibers are responsible for rapid movement. The other answers are characteristic of Type I fibers. 38. True – Endurance training can change muscles from fast twitch to slow twitch. It should be noted, however, that this is a controversial topic and some certifications like ACE disagree. 39. False – The agonist controls the joint during movement. 40. Gastrocnemius and soleus are BOTH correct.

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Day 2, Quiz 1: Client Assessment

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • • •

Assessment Tests Assessment Forms PAR-Q Blood pressure Assessing Flexibility

Step 2: Take Client Assessment Quiz 1 Please answer questions 1-3 using the following information: 1. Your new male client weighs 180 pounds. You measure his body fat and determine it is 26%. How much of your client's weight is due to fat? □ □ □ □

40 pounds 47 pounds 66 pounds insufficient information to calculate

2. What is your client's lean body weight? □ □ □ □ □

133 pounds 140 pounds 145 pounds 152 pounds insufficient information to calculate

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3. What is the goal weight if body fat is reduced to 22%? □ □ □ □

140 pounds 150 pounds 160 pounds 170 pounds

4. If a client can sit and just touch his/her toes when reaching forward, his/her score on a sit and reach test would be: □ □ □ □

zero pass fail needs improvement

5. True or False? Sit and Reach test results should not be compared among individuals. 6. If a client has listed back pain on the PAR-Q form, which assessment test should NOT be given? □ □ □ □

timed treadmill vertical leap BMI BORG scale

7. What is the appropriate course of action if a client lists blood pressure medicine on the PAR-Q form? □ □ □ □

Obtain physician consent before beginning an exercise program. Reduce target heart rate by 10%. Reduce aerobic training duration to no more than 20 minutes. Train normally but monitor blood pressure during sessions.

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8. Submaximal testing is used to measure: □ □ □ □

strength muscle endurance cardiovascular fitness cardiac output

9. True or False? Shoulder joint flexibility is a good indicator of overall body flexibility. 10. The minimum arterial pressure during a full cardiac cycle is referred to as what kind of pressure? □ □ □ □

systolic diastolic aortic none of the above

11. Pressure created by contractions of the heart muscle is referred to as what kind of pressure? □ □ □ □

systolic diastolic aortic none of the above

12. Which of the following can be calculated by subtracting your age from 220? (220 - age = ?): □ □ □ □

target heart rate maximum heart rate Karvonen target Karvonen BMI factor

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13. A female client has a resting heart rate of 80 beats per minute. What is her target heart rate if she is exercising at 70% of her reserve heart rate? □ □ □ □

90 beats per minute 140 beats per minute 160 beats per minute insufficient information to calculate

14. A client with Class IV congestive heart failure wants to train with you. What is the appropriate course of action? □ □ □ □

Develop a training program that avoids cardio. Obtain a medical release from the client’s physician. Get a signed informed consent form. Refuse your services.

15. On what form would you most likely see this question: “Are you over 65 and not accustomed to vigorous exercise?” □ □ □ □ □

informed consent medical release PAR-Q liability waiver health history form

16. VO2 max is typically _________ in females compared to males. □ higher □ lower □ the same 17. Which of the following is true of submaximal testing? □ □ □ □

It requires special equipment. It is exhausting to the client. It provides little value. None of the above

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18. Which of the following factors can distort the results of a submaximal test? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

Client was up late partying. Client ate a large breakfast one hour before the test. Client had a double cappuccino on the way to the gym. Client’s age

19. During a three-minute step test it is important to ask the client questions to assess their exertion level. What is the appropriate communication method in this situation? □ The trainer can speak, but the client should use only hand gestures. □ Both the trainer and the client should communicate through hand gestures only. □ Normal verbal communication between trainer and client is acceptable. □ The client can speak, but the trainer should use hand gestures. 20. Which form is considered legally binding? □ □ □ □ □

informed consent medical release PAR-Q liability waiver health history form

21. Which are examples of assessment tests that would be run for a new client? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

standing long jump blood skin fold measurements blood pressure

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Answers 1. 47 pounds – To calculate the weight of body fat in pounds, multiply the client’s weight (180) by their fat percentage (0.26), which in this case equals 46.8 (rounded up to 47). 2. 133 pounds – Lean body weight can be calculated by subtracting the pounds of fat (see question #1 = 47) from pounds of total body weight (180). 180-47= 133 3. 170 pounds – To calculate, first determine the desired percentage of lean body weight (1-0.22 = 0.78). Then divide the current lean body weight (see question #2 = 133) by the desired percentage of lean body weight (133/0.78 = 170). 4. Zero – Reaching beyond the toes gives a positive score; reaching short of the toes gives a negative score 5. True – Differences in body length can make comparisons meaningless. 6. Vertical leap – This could place undue pressure on the back and exacerbate the client’s pain. 7. Obtain physician consent before beginning an exercise program – Blood pressure medications can cause distortions in heart rate and blood pressure during exercise so physician consent is needed. 8. Cardiovascular fitness 9. False – Joint flexibility and overall flexibility are independent of each other. One joint may have a high ROM while another may be restricted. 10. Diastolic – In terms of blood pressure, the diastolic pressure, or minimum pressure, is exhibited when the heart is NOT pumping. 11. Systolic – The systolic pressure is the pressure measured when the heart is pumping. 12. Maximum heart rate 13. Insufficient information. You need the client’s age to calculate maximum heart rate (220 – age) and target heart rate. 14. Refuse your services. Class IV patients have symptoms even while resting. Any exertion can be fatal. You will be exposed to excessive liability even with a medical release form. 15. PAR-Q 16. Lower in females 41 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

17. None of the above – Submaximal testing does not require special equipment and is very useful in determining a client’s level of cardiovascular fitness without exhausting the client. 18. All choices – Submaximal testing is used to measure cardiovascular fitness. All of the choices can affect cardiovascular function. The client’s activities before the test will definitely affect the results, and age is known to affect VO2 max calculations in older persons. 19. The trainer can speak, but the client should use only hand gestures – The client should not speak to avoid altering the results of the test, and the trainer should indicate this to the client before administering the test. 20. Informed consent – Liability waivers are sometimes determined to be invalid by the courts. While informed consent forms can also be thrown out if the signer is determined to be unable to comprehend what they are signing, it is much less likely. 21. Skin fold measurements and blood pressure – Blood tests are unnecessary as are standing long jump tests. However, be sure to check with state regulations regarding scope of practice for personal trainers before administering any tests.

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Day 2, Quiz 2: Client Assessment

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • Body Mass Index (BMI) • Coronary Artery Disease

Step 2: Take Client Assessment Quiz 2

1. Cindy, a 50-year-old female client, has a resting heart rate of 80 beats per minute. What is her target heart rate if she is exercising at 70% of her reserve heart rate? □ □ □ □

95 beats per minute 143 beats per minute 160 beats per minute insufficient information to calculate

2. Cindy, a 50-year-old female client, has a resting heart rate of 80 beats per minute. If Cindy wants to work out in the aerobic zone, what is the target range for her heart rate? □ □ □ □

134 to 143 143 to 152 150 to 160 152 to 161

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3. A client with a BMI of 19 would be considered: □ □ □ □

underweight overweight obese normal

4. True or False? An athlete with a BMI of 23 can be considered obese. 5. Which of the following is NOT a method for measuring body fat: □ □ □ □

calipers hydrostatic weighing BMI weighting bioelectrical impedance

6. Which of the following is the most accurate method for measuring body fat? □ □ □ □

calipers hydrostatic weighing BMI weighting bioelectrical impedance

7. BMI is typically _________ in females compared to males. □ higher □ lower □ the same 8. True or False? The thigh skin fold measurement should be taken midway between the inguinal crease and the top of the patella. 9. Which of the following is a risk factor for coronary heart disease? □ □ □ □ □

high HDL low HDL hypertension family history all of the above

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10. Which of the following activities should NOT be engaged in with a new client who has a moderate risk for coronary artery disease? □ □ □ □

maximal testing submaximal testing moderate intensity training all of the above

11. True or False? Measurements of girth are directly related to body fat percentage. 12. The accuracy of skin fold measurements is dependent on which of the following? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

client age trainer skill blood pressure type of caliper

13. Which statement is NOT true about ganglion cysts? □ □ □ □

They usually grow on the ankle and foot. They often change in size. They have been known to disappear without treatment. They are NOT cancerous.

14. A golfer is more likely to suffer from which of the following conditions? □ □ □ □

lateral epicondylitis medial epicondylitis otitis externa tinea pedis

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15. A new client is going to be a bridesmaid in six weeks and wants to lose 15 pounds. Which of the following would you prescribe for this client? □ □ □ □

design an aerobic focused program design a weight training program design a program with aerobics and weight training cut caloric intake by 700 calories per day and design an aerobics program □ none of the above 16. BMI is a ratio of: □ □ □ □

body fat to weight body fat to height height to weight girth to height

17. Skin fold measurements are taken on which side of the body? □ □ □ □

right side left side both sides either side (it doesn't matter)

18. The abdominal skin fold measurement is taken ___________ about _______ centimeters from the umbilicus. □ □ □ □ □

horizontally, 2 horizontally, 3 horizontally, 4 vertically, 2 vertically, 3

19. Which of the following statements is accurate? □ □ □ □

1RM measures muscle endurance. 1RM is the weight of the successful lift. 1RM is the weight of the successful lift with at least 3 reps. 1RM is the weight of the unsuccessful lift.

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20. Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor for lower back pain? □ □ □ □ □ □

smoking sedentary lifestyle heavy lifting drug use obesity all choices are contributing factors

21. Obese people have __________ resting metabolic rates as compared to underweight people. □ higher □ lower □ the same

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Answers 1. 143 bpm – Maximum heart rate is calculated by using the formula 220 – age, so for Cindy this would be 220 – 50 = 170. Reserve heart rate is calculated by subtracting resting heart rate from maximum heart rate (170 – 80 = 90). 70% of her reserve heart rate (90 x 0.7 = 63) plus her resting heart rate (80) = 143. 2. 143 to 152 – The aerobic zone is 70 to 80% of reserve heart rate. Cindy’s reserve heart rate is 90 (see question #1) so 80% of her reserve heart rate is (90 x 0.8 = 72) plus her resting heart rate (80) = 152. See question #1 for 70% to get correct answer of 143 to 152. 3. Normal – Normal BMI is between 18.5 and 24.9. 4. True – Even with a normal BMI the athlete can be considered obese if the amount of body fat interferes with athletic performance. 5. BMI weighting – BMI does not measure body fat percentage. 6. Hydrostatic weighting – While more convenient methods like calipers and bioelectrical impedance are reliable enough to be used, the most accurate method is hydrostatic weighting. 7. Higher in females 8. True 9. All of the above – Although high HDL is a negative risk factor (considered a good thing) it is still used in the calculation of risk. 10. Maximal testing – You should not perform high intensity training with moderate-risk clients without physician consent. 11. False – Girth can vary depending on other factors like the size of the skeletal system and internal organs. 12. Trainer skill and type of caliper – Client age and blood pressure have no bearing on the accuracy of skin fold measurements. 13. They usually grow on the ankle and foot – This statement is NOT true as ganglion cysts are usually found on the hand and wrist, not the foot and ankle. 14. Medial epicondylitis – Lateral epicondylitis is tennis elbow; otitis externa is swimmer's ear; and tinea pedis is athlete's foot. 15. None of the above – It is unsafe to lose 15 pounds in six weeks. 16. Height to weight

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17. Right side of the body – This will help you obtain the most accurate measurements. Note, however, that some certifications recommend measuring the right side first and then measuring the left side to ensure accuracy. 18. Vertically about 2 centimeters from the umbilicus 19. 1RM is the weight of the successful lift – 1RM is a measure of muscle strength. 20. All choices are contributing factors – The back muscles are generally the weakest muscles in the body and are affected more by lifestyle factors like smoking and heavy lifting than by other muscles. 21. Higher – It takes more calories to run a larger body than a smaller body.

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Day 2, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • Be able to identify the planes of motion

Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 4

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Question 1-3. Identify the body planes that each arrow is pointing to.

1. Arrow A points to the 2. Arrow B points to the 3. Arrow C points to the

Choose from the following: Frontal Plane Sagittal Plane Helvetic Plane Transverse Plane

4. The proper alignment of the kinetic chain affects which of the following? □ □ □ □

kinesiology neuromuscular efficiency functional efficiency posture

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5. When one or more synergists take over function for a prime mover it is known as: □ □ □ □

synergistic dominance substitution Lenin's theory reciprocal inhibition

Question 6-13. Match the term to its correct definition. Term

Definition

6. Anterior

A. farther away

7. Distal

B. away from the sagittal midline of the body

8. Inferior

C. toward the sagittal midline of the body

9. Lateral

D. toward the head

10. Medial

E. away from the head

11. Posterior

F. front of the body

12. Proximal

G. back of the body

13. Superior

H. closer

14. Which is NOT a normal effect of the sympathetic nervous system? □ □ □ □

sweating constricted pupils increased heart rate all of these are normal effects

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15. Testosterone and estrogen are examples of: □ □ □ □

hormones inhibitors conjoiners accelerators

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Answers 1. A = Sagittal Plane 2. B = Frontal Plane 3. C = Transverse Plane 4. Posture – The correct alignment of the kinetic chain results in better posture. Any distortion can result in poor posture, which can cause a variety of musculoskeletal problems such as back and knee pain. 5. Synergistic dominance 6. F – Anterior is the front of the body. 7. A – Distal means farther away. 8. E – Inferior is away from the head. 9. B – Lateral means away from the sagittal midline of the body. 10. C – Medial means toward the sagittal midline of the body. 11. G – Posterior is the back of the body. 12. H – Proximal means closer. 13. D – Superior means toward the head. 14. Constricted pupils – Sweating and increased heart rate are normal effects of the sympathetic nervous system. Pupils will normally become dilated, not constricted. 15. Hormones

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Day 3, Quiz 1: Program Design

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • • • •

Benefits of proper warm-up techniques Importance of a cool down Different types of stretching Safe and effective weight loss Effects of detraining Program design techniques like super setting

Step 2: Take Program Design Quiz 1

1. A proper warm up can: □ □ □ □

reduce oxygen deficit during intense training reduce the glycogen effect increase range of motion all of the above

2. To improve clients’ flexibility, it is recommended that they stretch each muscle group 4 times each, 3 times per week for: □ □ □ □

20 seconds each time 30 seconds each time 90 seconds each time 3 to 5 minutes each time

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3. You observe your client standing with toes pointed outward. Which flexibility technique would you prescribe? □ □ □ □

functional active inactive corrective

4. What is the most appropriate flexibility technique to use during the cool down stage? □ □ □ □

functional active inactive corrective

5. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs during which of the following? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

warm up sprinting heavy weightlifting cool down

6. Recommended daily activity for adults is at least ____ minutes of moderate intensity activity. □ □ □ □

15 20 30 45

7. If a client’s goal is to lose 1 – 2 pounds per week, the aerobic program you prescribe should burn how many calories per day? □ □ □ □

100 300 500 750

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8. A proper cool down: □ □ □ □

reduces water loss due to sweating increases flexibility prevents blood from pooling in muscles increases metabolic response

9. Stroke volume _________ after a period of detraining. □ increases □ decreases □ stays the same 10. Muscle atrophy occurs _______ when compared to muscle hypertrophy. □ at a faster rate □ at a slower rate □ at the same rate 11. Limits of Stability can be improved by which of the following? □ □ □ □

functional flexibility raising the center of gravity plantarflexion training in an unstable environment

12. The principle that states that the body will adapt to the demands placed upon it accurately describes which of the following? □ □ □ □

principle of mechanical specificity principle of overload specificity principle of metabolic specificity principle of specificity

13. Changing an exercise program to prevent overtraining is called: □ □ □ □

rotation variety specification periodization

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14. What is the appropriate course of action for the personal trainer if the client's chiropractor recommends building strength in the Rhomboids? □ □ □ □

obtain physician consent before beginning recommend push ups recommend squats recommend dips

15. Bench press followed by dumbbell flies is an example of what kind of superset? □ □ □ □

compound superset pre-exhaustion superset post-exhaustion superset isolations superset

16. Leg extensions followed by squats is an example of what kind of superset? □ □ □ □

compound superset pre-exhaustion superset post-exhaustion superset isolations superset

17. Dumbbell flies followed by cable crossovers is an example of what kind of superset? □ □ □ □

compound superset pre-exhaustion superset post-exhaustion superset isolations superset

18. Periodization is a technique used to minimize the effects of: □ □ □ □

detraining pretraining under training over training

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19. If your client reduces high intensity training to only once per week, his/her VO2 max will: □ increase □ decrease □ stay the same 20. During stretching routines, the client should feel: □ □ □ □

no pain mild discomfort moderate to intense discomfort a release of endorphins

21. If your client is suffering from shin splints, what should you add to his/her program? □ □ □ □

light stretching followed by 30 minutes of aerobic activity stretching the hamstrings stretching the ankle dorsiflexors stretching gastrocnemius and soleus

22. True or False? In general, single joint exercises should be completed before multi-joint exercises. 23. What are the effects of stretching? □ □ □ □ □

improved blood flow soreness prevention reduced low back pain reduced stress all of the above

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Answers 1. Reduce oxygen deficit during intense training – It is important to note that including stretching in a warm-up routine can increase range of motion. 2. 30 seconds – This is recommended as the most beneficial amount of time. 3. Corrective – The toes pointing outward would indicate corrective flexibility techniques. 4. Corrective – You do not want to use active or functional stretching during cool down. 5. Sprinting and heavy weightlifting – Both sprinting and heavy weightlifting are anaerobic activities, while warm up and cool down should be aerobic. 6. 30 minutes 7. 500 calories – At least 500 calories must be burned to help create the caloric deficit needed to lose 1 – 2 pounds per week. 8. Prevents blood from pooling in muscles 9. Decreases – This is especially true for people who do endurance training. 10. At the same rate 11. Training in an unstable environment – This helps the body adapt. 12. Principle of overload specificity 13. Periodization 14. Recommend dips – Chin-ups and dips are good exercises for the rhomboids, and physician consent is not necessary. 15. Post-exhaustion superset – A post-exhaustion superset starts with the compound movement and follows that with the isolation exercise 16. Pre-exhaustion superset – A pre-exhaustion superset is composed of two different exercises for the same muscle group. The first exercise (leg extensions) is an isolation move, and the second (squats) is a compound movement. (Compound moves target several muscle groups at once while isolation moves target specific muscles.) 17. Isolations superset – An isolations superset is composed of two isolation exercises performed one after another. 18. Over training 19. It stays the same – VO2 max can be maintained by training as little as once per week.

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20. Mild discomfort – However, it should be noted that the client should NOT feel moderate to intense pain or discomfort while stretching. 21. Stretching the ankle dorsiflexors – This will help to reduce the pain experienced with shin splints. 22. False – Multi-joint exercises should be done first. 23. All of the above – Stretching can improve blood flow, prevent soreness and reduce low back pain and stress.

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Day 3, Quiz 2: Program Design Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • • •

Effective strength training Cardiovascular training Designing endurance training programs Circuit Training Dealing with low back pain

Step 2: Take Program Design Quiz 2

1. Your client's goal is to build his/her strength. How often should he/she train per week? □ □ □ □

once per week 2 to 3 times per week 3 to 5 times per week a little every day

2. What is the appropriate course of action for a client suffering from lower back pain? □ □ □ □ □

refer him to a doctor recommend massage therapy design a program to improve posture design a program to strengthen the back muscles design a program to strengthen the stomach muscles

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3. Resistance training should always start with which muscles? □ □ □ □

small muscle groups large muscle groups stabilizer muscles prime movers

4. Improved performance, posture and range of motion are benefits of which of the following? □ □ □ □

strength training stretching anaerobic exercise aerobic exercise

5. Interval training is most appropriate for which of the following goals? □ □ □ □

improved athletic performance building strength carb reduction all of the above

6. An exercise with high resistance and low reps is best suited for building: □ □ □ □

muscle endurance muscle strength aerobic endurance cardio flexibility

7. True or False? Walking can reduce lower back pain. 8. If your client wants bigger muscles, how many reps do you need to include in the training program? □ □ □ □ □

2 to 4 4 to 6 8 to 12 12 to 15 until exhaustion

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9. If your client wants to build maximal strength, how much rest time do you allow between sets? □ □ □ □

less than 30 seconds 1 to 3 minutes 3 to 5 minutes more than 5 minutes

10. What are the effects of cardiovascular training? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □ □

increased stroke volume decreased resting heart rate decreased blood volume increased HDL levels increased LDL levels

11. What suggestions would your make to a client who suffers from lower back pain? □ □ □ □

build upper body strength stretch the hamstrings sleep in the supine position none of the above

12. Circuit training is an effective way to improve which of the following? □ □ □ □

overall fitness strength muscular endurance all of the above

13. What is the optimum amount of reps during a circuit-training program? □ □ □ □

3 to 5 6 to 9 10 to 15 as many as possible

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14. The optimum intensity during circuit training is: □ □ □ □

50 to 60% THR 60 to 70% THR 70 to 80% THR 50% 1RM

15. Weight training with a high number of reps several times per week is consistent with: □ □ □ □

strength training muscular endurance flexibility calcium regeneration

16. Training at 70 to 80% target heart rate is considered training in which zone? □ □ □ □

aerobic zone anaerobic zone recovery zone unhealthy zone

17. What is the main disadvantage of exercise bands? □ □ □ □

tension cannot be adjusted more resistance in parts of the range of motion requires expensive equipment requires free weights to be used with them

18. Which should be completed first in a program for a client who has a goal of strength training? □ □ □ □

cool down auxillary lifts core lifts none of the above

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19. Your client wants to strengthen his/her serratus muscle. What exercise do you suggest? □ □ □ □

calf raises toe touches push ups sit ups

20. Your client is unlikely to experience hypertrophy in the first few weeks of training due to: □ □ □ □

hyperplasia neuromuscular adaptation detraining overload principle

21. A new client with little exercise history will experience pain after a heavy workout due to: □ □ □ □ □

ATP DOMS hypertrophy hyperplasia blood pooling

22. To minimize the risk of injury to a new client with little exercise history, you should design your program to do which of the following? □ □ □ □

strengthen the quads and hamstrings stretch the quads and hamstrings stretch the quads and strengthen the hamstrings strengthen the quads and stretch the hamstrings

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Answers 1. Two to three times per week – Building strength requires adequate recovery time (at least 48 hours is recommended). Thus, strength training should only be done 2 to 3 times per week. 2. Design a program to improve posture – Referring to a doctor is not necessary; and only strengthening the back or stomach muscles may not have the desired result. Note: This question is controversial because some certifications may (cautiously) suggest that a physician's consent is required. 3. Large muscle groups – This reduces the risk of injury and allows for the best progression of muscle growth and strength. 4. Stretching – None of the other options (strength training, aerobic or anaerobic exercise) has much bearing on improving posture or range of motion. 5. Improved athletic performance – Athletic performance can be enhanced by interval training, as it forces the body to adapt to different movements while still building strength and endurance. 6. Muscle strength – Decreasing resistance and increasing reps is best for building endurance. 7. True – Walking can improve posture and strengthen muscles, helping to reduce back pain. 8. Four to six reps – This is the recommended amount of reps for building muscle strength while 8 to 12+ reps are recommended for increasing endurance. 9. Three to five minutes – For strength athletes, 3 to 5 minutes of rest time between sets is ideal, allowing for full phosphagen recovery before beginning the next set. It's only for individuals training with hyperthrophy and endurance as a focus that 30 to 90 seconds rest time between reps is ideal. 10. Decreased resting heart rate, increased stroke volume and increased HDL levels 11. Stretch the hamstrings – Much lower back pain is caused by tight hamstrings, causing the hips and pelvis to rotate back. 12. All of the above – Overall fitness, strength and muscular endurance are all improved by circuit training. 13. As many as possible within the allowed time – The goal of circuit training is to do as many reps as possible within the allowed time so that your body does not have enough time to recover between exercises, thus creating a higher load on your body.

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14. 50% 1RM – It is not practical to measure THR during circuit training. The weight will control how hard the client has to work. 15. Muscular endurance – Strength training requires fewer reps, and flexibility does not require the bearing of weight. 16. Aerobic zone 17. More resistance in parts of the range of motion – This does not provide a balanced range of motion exercise. 18. Core lifts – Strengthening the core first helps to prevent injury and allows you do the most difficult exercises while you are not yet fatigued. 19. Push ups 20. Neuromuscular adaptation – Initial strength gains come from building relationships between the motor neurons and muscles rather than muscle growth. 21. DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness) 22. Stretch the quads and strengthen the hamstrings – The quads are usually stronger than the hamstrings. This imbalance can increase the chance for injury.

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Day 3, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • • •

Effective strength training Cardiovascular training Designing endurance training programs Circuit Training Dealing with low back pain

Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 5 1. Hamstrings perform: □ □ □ □

knee extension and hip flexion hip extension and knee flexion knee extension and hip extension knee flexion and hip flexion

2. When bending the elbow, the biceps are the: □ □ □ □

agonist antagonist stabilizer synergist

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3. The quadriceps perform: □ □ □ □

hip extension knee flexion knee extension ankle flexion

4. Pectoralis Major performs: □ □ □ □

shoulder external rotation scapular retraction shoulder horizontal adduction scapular elevation

5. Triceps perform: □ □ □ □

elbow flexion elbow extension wrist flexion shoulder adduction

6. The External Obliques perform: □ □ □ □

scapular elevation spinal flexion spinal rotation spinal extension

7. Rhomboid Major performs: □ □ □ □

scapular extension scapular adduction scapular abduction scapular upward rotation

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8. Synovial fluid: □ □ □ □

strengthens the joint lubricates the joint softens ligament tissue repairs ligament tissue

9. Hyaline cartilage __________ with resistance training. □ increases □ decreases □ stays the same 10. The body's ability to protect the muscle from being injured while contracting against too heavy a load is called: □ □ □ □

reciprocal inhibition relative workload muscle imbalance autogenic inhibition

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Answers 1. Hip extension and knee flexion 2. Agonist 3. Knee extension 4. Shoulder horizontal adduction 5. Elbow extension 6. Spinal rotation 7. Scapular adduction – They also perform scapular downward rotation. 8. Lubricates the joint 9. Increases with resistance training 10. Autogenic inhibition

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Day 4, Quiz 1: Exercise Techniques Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • Kinesiology • Range of motion for major joints • Identify the muscles responsible for joint movements (i.e. which muscles play a role in hip extension)

Step 2: Take Exercise Techniques Quiz 1 Questions 1-5 refer to the video located at: http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e1zi43.html Watch the video and then answer the questions below. 1. With regard to the shoulder joint, which muscle is the agonist during this exercise? □ □ □ □ □

rotator cuff pectoralis major posterior deltoid latissimus dorsi none of the above

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2. With regard to the shoulder joint, which muscle is the antagonist during this exercise? □ □ □ □ □

rotator cuff pectoralis major posterior deltoid latissimus dorsi none of the above

3. With regard to the shoulder joint, which muscle is the synergist during this exercise? □ □ □ □ □

rotator cuff pectoralis major posterior deltoid latissimus dorsi none of the above

4. With regard to the shoulder joint, which muscle is the stabilizer during this exercise? □ □ □ □ □

rotator cuff pectoralis major posterior deltoid latissimus dorsi none of the above

5. The exercise is being performed in which plane? □ □ □ □

transverse plane converse plane sagittal plane frontal plane

End of video questions. 6. True or False? The muscle that provides the main source of movement is the antagonist. 74 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

Question 7-18: Match the definition to the correct term Definition 7. Circular movement (combining flexion, extension, adduction and abduction) with no shaft rotation 8. Medial movement toward the midline of the body 9. Moving the sole of the foot away from the medial plane 10. Extending the joint beyond its anatomical position 11. Moving the sole of the foot toward the medial plane 12. Moving posteriorly (example: chin in) 13. External rotation resulting in an appendage facing upward 14. Straightening the joint, resulting in an increase of angle 15. Moving anteriorly (example: chin out) 16. Lateral movement away from the midline of the body 17. Bending the joint, resulting in a decrease of angle 18. Internal rotation resulting in the appendage facing downward

Terms Abduction Adduction Circumduction Extension Eversion Flexion Hyperextension Inversion Pronation Protrusion Supination Retrusion

19. A muscle that assists another muscle is known as the: □ □ □ □

agonist antagonist stabilizer synergist

20. Biarticulate refers to: □ □ □ □

a tendon that attaches to two bones a muscle that crosses two joints two ligaments attached to the same bone a tendon that attaches to two muscles

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21. To build muscle strength, how long must muscles be under tension during an exercise set? □ □ □ □

less than 45 seconds 45 to 90 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 120 to 180 seconds

22. During a squat exercise the prime mover is (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

rhomboids quadriceps gluteus maximus soleus

23. What is the normal range of motion during shoulder horizontal abduction? □ □ □ □

20 degrees 45 degrees 90 degrees 150 degrees

24. What is the normal range of motion during elbow flexion? □ □ □ □ □

20 degrees 45 degrees 90 degrees 135 degrees 180 degrees

25. What is the normal range of motion during wrist extension? □ □ □ □

10 degrees 70 degrees 120 degrees 180 degrees

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26. What is the normal range of motion during knee extension? □ □ □ □

10 degrees 45 degrees 120 degrees 180 degrees

27. What is the normal range of motion during ankle plantarflexion? □ □ □ □

10 degrees 45 degrees 120 degrees 180 degrees

28. The antagonist muscle _______ to allow movement. □ □ □ □

contracts stabilizes relaxes applies isometric pressure

Questions 29-30 refer to the video located at: http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e1zi43.html Watch the video and then answer the questions below. 29. Rectus abdominis _______________ spinal flexion. □ □ □ □

accelerates decelerates accelerates and decelerates neither accelerates nor decelerates

30. The obliques _______________ spinal flexion. □ □ □ □

accelerate decelerate accelerate and decelerate neither accelerate nor decelerate

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End of video questions

31. True or False? Isotonic contraction causes no change in the length of a muscle. 32. The transverse plane separates the: □ □ □ □

right from left top from bottom front from back none of the above

Questions 33-37 refer to the video located at: http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z4e1zi43.html Watch the video and then answer the questions below. 33. With regard to the hip, which muscle is the agonist during this exercise? □ □ □ □ □

psoas gluteus maximus hamstring transversus abdominis none of the above

34. With regard to the hip, which muscle is the antagonist during this exercise? □ □ □ □ □

psoas gluteus maximus hamstring transversus abdominis none of the above

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35. With regard to the hip, which muscle is the synergist during this exercise? □ □ □ □ □

psoas gluteus maximus hamstring transversus abdominis none of the above

36. With regard to the hip, which muscle is the stabilizer during this exercise? □ □ □ □ □

psoas gluteus maximus hamstring transversus abdominis none of the above

37. The exercise is being performed in which plane? □ □ □ □

transverse plane converse plane sagittal plane frontal plane

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Answers 1. Latissimus dorsi 2. Pectoralis major 3. Posterior deltoid 4. Rotator cuff 5. Sagittal plane – The sagittal plane divides your body into two sides, left and right. When you move along this plane, you are moving forward and backward. A forward lunge is an example of moving along the sagittal plane. 6. False – The prime mover (or agonist) provides the main source of movement. 7. Circumduction 8. Adduction 9. Eversion 10. Hyperextension 11. Inversion 12. Retrusion 13. Supination 14. Extension 15. Protrusion 16. Abduction 17. Flexion 18. Pronation 19. Synergist 20. A muscle that crosses two joints 21. Less than 45 seconds is required to build muscle strength. 22. Quadriceps and gluteus maximus 23. 45 degrees 24. 135 degrees 25. 70 degrees 26. 10 degrees 27. 45 degrees 28. Relaxes

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29. Accelerates and decelerates 30. Accelerate and decelerate 31. False – Isometric causes no change in muscle length. Isotonic can either shorten or lengthen the muscle. 32. Top from bottom 33. Gluteus maximus 34. Psoas 35. Hamstring 36. Transversus abdominis – While this is the most correct answer to the question, some readers have pointed out that you have no real control over the contraction of it, unlike the other abdominal muscles. 37. Sagittal plane

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Day 4, Quiz 2: Exercise Techniques

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • •

Know your muscle groups Muscles used during common exercises (exercise mechanics) Muscular phases (concentric, eccentric, isometric, etc.) Types of flexibility

Step 2: Take Exercise Techniques Quiz 2 1. When performing a squat exercise, hip extension occurs in which phase? □ □ □ □

concentric phase isometric phase eccentric phase isotonic phase

2. When pointing your toes like a ballet dancer, which muscles provide stability? □ □ □ □

gastrocnemius, soleus anterior tibialis peroneus longus hamstring

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3. When pointing your toes like a ballet dancer, which muscles accelerate plantarflexion? □ □ □ □

gastrocnemius, soleus anterior tibialis peroneus longus hamstring

4. When pointing your toes like a ballet dancer, which muscles decelerate plantarflexion? □ □ □ □

gastrocnemius, soleus anterior tibialis peroneus longus hamstring

5. Rate of force production is the ability to exert maximal force in a minimum: □ □ □ □

distance rate time repetitions

6. The temporary holding of breath while performing lifts higher than 80% of max effort is called: □ □ □ □

Valsalva maneuver isometric superman syndrome pulmonary arrest

7. The maximum amount of weight one can lift in a single repetition for a given exercise is referred to as: □ □ □ □ □

VO2 max maximal strength 1RM Bryzcki's point none of the above

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8. Brzycki's equation calculates which of the following? □ □ □ □

max reps max load max heart rate target heart rate

9. Pectoralis major is active in shoulder (choose TWO answers): □ □ □ □

abduction extension flexion adduction

10. The following description best describes which exercise? Grasp dumbbell with arm straight to side. Bend waist to opposite side of dumbbell. Lower and repeat. Continue with opposite side □ □ □ □

hack squat side bends crunch side row

11. The exercise described in question 10 targets which muscle? □ □ □ □

obliques spinae erector trapezius gluteus maximus

12. The following description best describes which exercise? Grasp two dumbbells. Lie supine on bench. Support dumbbells above the chest with the arms fixed in a slightly bent position. Lower dumbbells to sides until chest muscles are stretched with elbows fixed. Bring dumbbells together in a hugging motion until dumbbells are nearly together. Repeat. □ □ □ □

bench press dips fly chest press

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13. The exercise described in question 12 targets which muscle? □ □ □ □

biceps triceps pectoralis major scapula

14. The following description best describes which exercise? Raise heels by extending ankles as high as possible. Lower heels by bending ankles until calves are stretched. Repeat. □ □ □ □

calf raise leg press leg curl standing jump

15. The exercise described in question 14 targets which muscle? □ □ □ □

soleus gastrocnemius gluteus maximus hamstring

16. Inclining the bench when doing chest presses _______ the chest workout and ________ the shoulder workout. □ □ □ □ □

increases, increases decreases, increases decreases, decreases doesn’t change, increases doesn’t change, doesn’t change

17. What acts as the fulcrum of the lever system created by the elbow? □ □ □ □ □

bicep tricep radius humerus joint

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18. When performing weight training, you should lower the weight ________ when compared to lifting the weight. □ at a faster rate □ at a slower rate □ at the same speed using even controlled motions 19. During the most intense part of a stretching exercise, you should: □ □ □ □

exhale inhale breathe normally yell or make a loud grunting noise

20. PNF stretching is a combination of _______ stretching and ________ stretching. □ □ □ □

active, dynamic active, isometric passive, isometric passive, dynamic

21. Which phase produces force during movement? □ □ □ □

concentric phase isometric phase eccentric phase isotonic phase

22. The phase where muscles are moving in the same direction as the resistance is the: □ □ □ □

concentric phase isometric phase eccentric phase isotonic phase

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23. Which of the following statements about functional flexibility is TRUE? □ Functional flexibility is designed to improve muscle imbalances. □ Functional flexibility uses only the tension of the agonists and synergists while the antagonists are being stretched. □ Functional flexibility refers to the ability of the pieces of the skeleton to freely, easily and fluidly float through the ranges of motion. □ Functional flexibility technique requires exercise equipment to perform properly. 24. Which of the following statements about active flexibility is TRUE? □ Active flexibility is designed to improve muscle imbalances. □ Active flexibility uses only the tension of the agonists and synergists while the antagonists are being stretched. □ Active flexibility refers to the ability of the pieces of the skeleton to freely, easily and fluidly float through the ranges of motion. □ Active flexibility technique requires exercise equipment to perform properly. 25. Which of the following statements about corrective flexibility is TRUE? □ Corrective flexibility is designed to improve muscle imbalances. □ Corrective flexibility uses only the tension of the agonists and synergists while the antagonists are being stretched. □ Corrective flexibility refers to the ability of the pieces of the skeleton to freely, easily and fluidly float through the ranges of motion. □ Corrective flexibility technique requires exercise equipment to perform properly. 26. Which statement is NOT correct? □ □ □ □

Sweating cools the body. Sweat absorbs heat from the body. Evaporation reduces body temperature. Sweat is a saline solution.

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27. Maximum workload is achieved during crunches when the: □ □ □ □

hands are behind the back hands are behind the head arms cross the chest arms are over the head

28. While lifting, you should inhale during the ________ phase and exhale during the _________ phase. □ □ □ □

concentric, eccentric isometric, concentric eccentric, concentric concentric, isometric

29. The leg curl machine is useful for strengthening which muscle? □ □ □ □

soleus hamstrings gastrocnemius psoas

30. Which methods are used for measuring exercise intensity? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □ □ □ □

perceived exertion Karvonen Borg's RPE heart rate maximum heart rate vertical jump test cardiovascular endurance

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31. Three exercises performed back to back with minimal rest between is called: □ □ □ □ □

superset triset functional overload negligence none of the above

32. When exercising below the _________, any lactate produced by the muscles is removed by the body without building up. □ □ □ □ □

lactic point glucose consumption level anaerobic threshold maximal heart rate none of the above

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Answers 1. Concentric phase 2. Peroneus longus 3. Gastrocnemius and soleus 4. Anterior tibialis 5. Time 6. Valsalva maneuver – It is important to note that it is not recommended for cardiac patients to use the Valsalva maneuver. 7. 1RM 8. Maximum load 9. Flexion and adduction 10. Side bends 11. Obliques 12. Fly 13. Pectoralis major 14. Calf raise 15. Gastrocnemius 16. Doesn’t change, increases – Inclining the bench places a heavier load on the shoulders but doesn’t affect the chest workout. 17. Joint – The elbow joint itself acts as the fulcrum for the third-class lever of the arm. 18. At a slower rate – The muscle does most of the work during the lowering of weight, the eccentric phase, so a slower rate helps to promote muscle growth and to avoid injury. 19. Exhale – While you should breathe normally during most of the stretching routine, it is important to exhale during the most intense part of the exercise. 20. Passive, isometric. A good resource on stretching types is http://www.cmcrossroads.com/bradapp/docs/rec/stretching/stretching_4.html 21. Concentric phase 22. Eccentric phase

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23. Functional flexibility refers to the ability of the pieces of the skeleton to freely, easily and fluidly float through the ranges of motion is the TRUE statement. 24. Active flexibility uses only the tension of the agonists and synergists while the antagonists are being stretched is the TRUE statement. 25. Corrective flexibility is designed to improve muscle imbalances is the TRUE statement. 26. The only statement that is NOT true is sweating cools the body. Sweating is the secretion of a saline solution that will absorb heat from the body. It is the evaporation of the sweat that actually cools the body. 27. Arms are over the head – Crunches target the abdominal muscles so when the arms are over the head, more load is placed on the target muscles. 28. Eccentric, concentric 29. Hamstrings 30. Borg's RPE and heart rate – Borg’s Rate of Perceived Exertion and heart rate are both good indicators of exercise intensity while the other methods listed are not designed to measure intensity. 31. Triset – A triset is three exercises in a row with no rest between them; a superset is two exercises in a row with no rest. 32. Anaerobic threshold

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Day 4, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • Review of skeletal system and major bones • Understanding the role of joints • Know the differences between connective tissues

Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 6 1. The flat part of a bone where muscles can attach is called the: □ □ □ □

depression joint spindle anchor

2. The hard connective tissue that creates a skeletal framework for the body is: □ □ □ □ □ □

axial skeleton ligaments tendons appendicular skeleton bones none of the above

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3. A bone protrusion where connective tissue can attach is called a: □ □ □ □

depression process synovial joint spur

4. Which of the following refers to joints that are held together by connective tissue? □ □ □ □

synovial joints nonsynovial joints interjoints arthrojoints

5. A prime mover is also known as a(n): □ □ □ □

agonist antagonist synergist stabilizer

6. Muscles that provide support to the body during exercise are called the: □ □ □ □

agonist antagonist synergist stabilizer

7. Multifidus and intertransverse are muscles of the: □ □ □ □

abdomen back shoulder none of the above

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8. Hypertrophy is muscle ____________. □ □ □ □

atrophy composition growth shortening

Answers 1. Depression 2. Bones – Although the appendicular and axial skeletons are part of the skeletal framework, this question is referring to the tissue. 3. Process 4. Synovial joints 5. Agonist 6. Stabilizer 7. Back 8. Growth

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Day 5, Quiz 1: Safety, Legal and Business Issues Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • • •

Understand the role of forms and reducing liability How to properly spot a client during exercise Identifying the symptoms of dehydration and heat stroke Common forms of business ownership Dealing with common injuries

Step 2: Take Safety, Legal and Business Issues Quiz 1 1. Pulling a muscle is an example of a(n): □ □ □ □

chronic injury improper warm up acute injury tissue shock

2. Which of the following occurs during prolonged submaximal exercise? □ □ □ □

excess glycogen production lactic acid depletion decrease in hydrogen ion concentration muscle fatigue

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3. Your client experiences painful, brief muscle cramps that occur during exercise or work in a hot environment. He/she is most likely suffering from which of the following? □ □ □ □ □

dehydration muscle fatigue heat cramps heat stroke heat exhaustion

4. Your client is sweating profusely and complaining of headache, weakness, thirst and nausea. These are symptoms of which of the following? □ □ □ □

dehydration muscle fatigue heat cramps heat exhaustion

5. Your client is confused, complaining of dry mouth and dizziness. He/she most likely is experiencing: □ □ □ □

dehydration muscle fatigue heat cramps heat stroke

6. What is the best form to use to ensure that your client has an appreciation and understanding of the implications of training? □ □ □ □

PAR-Q waiver medical release informed consent

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7. All personal trainers should have what type of insurance? □ □ □ □

business liability professional indemnity all of the above

8. True or False? A personal trainer can be negligent for not keeping waivers and informed consent forms on file. 9. A description of any risks associated with personal training should be included on which form? □ □ □ □

PAR-Q waiver medical release informed consent

10. What is the simplest form of business ownership? □ □ □ □ □

partnership corporation limited liability company sole proprietorship none of the above

11. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of sole proprietorship? □ □ □ □

higher tax rates low dividend yields unlimited liability a lot of paperwork to start

12. True or false? Jumper's knee is caused by playing on hard surfaces.

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13. Which of the following statements applies to a client with an exertion level of 10 on the original Borg scale? □ □ □ □

the client is risking injury the client is barely moving the client is overweight the client is obese

14. What method should you use when spotting a barbell bench press? □ □ □ □

supinated grip pronated grip alternating grip have hands near the bar but not touching it

15. True or False? The negative effects of dehydration first appear at 5% dehydration levels. 16. Where should you position yourself while your client is doing a dumbbell overhead press? □ □ □ □

behind the client in front of the client either side of the client none of the above

17. Where should you position yourself while your client is doing a dumbbell bicep curl? □ □ □ □

behind the client in front of the client either side of the client none of the above

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18. If your client loses consciousness while training in high temperatures, he/she most likely experienced: □ □ □ □

heat exhaustion heat stroke heat syncope mild dehydration

19. Tearing of muscle tissue is known as a: □ □ □ □

strain kink knot sprain

20. Overstretching a ligament is known as a: □ □ □ □

strain kink knot sprain

21. Stretching the gastrocnemius can help prevent which of the following conditions? □ □ □ □

shin splints tennis elbow plantar fascitas stress fractures

22. Wearing shock-absorbing shoes can help prevent which condition? □ □ □ □

shin splints tennis elbow plantar fascitas stress fractures

23. True or False? You should always spot your client, even when using machine weights.

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24. True or False? You should always have your hand on the bar when spotting. 25. According to the principle of overload, a normal amount of exercise will _______ fitness level. □ □ □ □

increase decrease maintain trigger

26. What is the best method for reducing swelling after an injury? □ □ □ □

ice heat anticoagulants antihistamines

27. A meniscus tear can be caused by: □ □ □ □

stretching the hamstrings twisting the knee pulling a muscle inflammation of the tendon

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Answers 1. Acute injury – Chronic injuries are recurring injuries over a period of time so pulling a muscle is considered an acute injury. 2. Muscle fatigue – Prolonged submaximal exercise can lead to a depletion of glycogen and lactic acid build-up, causing muscle fatigue. 3. Heat cramps – While muscle cramps can be a symptom of heat exhaustion, if no other symptoms are present, they are heat cramps. 4. Heat exhaustion – Symptoms of heat exhaustion may include nausea, vomiting, fatigue, weakness, headache, muscle cramps and aches, and dizziness. 5. Dehydration – Lack of fluids can cause confusion while dry mouth and dizziness are other symptoms of dehydration. 6. Informed consent – The informed consent form should specifically lay out the implications of training in plain English and should advise the client to ask the trainer if they do not understand something. 7. Liability – Liability insurance offers financial protection against legal action that could be taken against you. 8. False – It is not considered negligent to not keep these forms on file because it does not hurt the client in any way, but it is a good business practice to keep adequate records including copies of all waivers and informed consents signed by clients. 9. Informed consent – The informed consent form is designed to provide the client with specific information regarding the implications of training including any associated risks. 10. Sole proprietorship – Since you alone own the business, it is the simplest form of business ownership but not necessarily always the best. 11. Unlimited liability – Because you alone own the business, you are solely and completely responsible for any legal action taken against the business. 12. True – The negative effects of the impact with a hard surface on the knee joint are what causes jumper’s knee. 13. Barely moving – The question refers to the ORIGINAL Borg scale, but the Borg scale has been revised to be a 0 to 10 scale. Be careful to understand which scale your certification program uses. 14. Alternating grip – This method is safest and will allow you to best assist the client if necessary. 101 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

15. False – Negative effects can appear as soon as 2% dehydration. 16. Behind the client – This will put you in the best position to assist the client if needed. 17. In front of the client – This position will best allow you to monitor the client and offer assistance if necessary. 18. Heat syncope – Syncope is the medical term for fainting, which is what happened to the client. Although loss of consciousness can be a symptom of severe heat exhaustion or heat stroke, other symptoms will present themselves first. 19. Strain 20. Sprain 21. Shin splints 22. Stress fractures – Stress fractures occur because of the stress, usually caused by impact, placed on a bone. Shock-absorbing shoes will lessen the effects of impact on the bones. 23. False – Machine weights don't require spotting if the exercises are performed properly. 24. False 25. Maintain – You must continually increase the load to increase fitness level. 26. Ice – Swelling occurs because of a rush of blood to the injured area. Applying ice to the area will help the blood flow out of the injured area and reduce swelling. 27. Twisting the knee

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Day 5, Quiz 2: Safety, Legal and Business Issues

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • Recognizing dangerous situations • Identifying eating disorders • Safe weight loss

Step 2: Take Safety, Legal and Business Issues Quiz 2 Question 1-5: Match the situation to the correct response (you can use an answer more than once). Situation Response 1. A client is sweating and his/her face is red. Call an ambulance 2. A client has a headache. Stop the session and send the client home to rest 3. A client experiences chest pain. Take a short break and then continue training 4. A client has a fever. Push through it 5. A client has arthritis and is complaining of Diagnose his/her symptoms inflamed joints.

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6. Your client has a fast, weak pulse and a bloated stomach. He/she most likely is suffering from which condition? □ □ □ □ □

severe dehydration muscle fatigue heat cramps heat stroke moderate dehydration

7. Your client has a flushed face and experiences dizziness that gets worse when standing. He/she most likely is experiencing which of the following? □ □ □ □ □

severe dehydration muscle fatigue heat cramps heat stroke moderate dehydration

8. A client is experiencing cramping in the legs and buttocks. This would indicate: □ □ □ □

no cause for alarm symptoms of pulmonary disorder symptoms of peripheral artery disease a “charlie horse” from lactic acid build up

9. Excessive exercising may be a sign of which of the following disorders? □ □ □ □

obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) bulimia nervosa anorexia nervosa marital problems

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10. If your client is experiencing ventricular ejection, what is the BEST course of action? □ □ □ □

call an ambulance stop the session and send the client home to rest take a short minute break and then continue training push through it

11. Symptoms of SI joint dysfunction include pain in which of the following? □ □ □ □

back thigh buttocks all of the above

12. What is the appropriate course of action if your client is experiencing tight muscles and heavy breathing during aerobic exercise? □ □ □ □

push through it reduce intensity monitor blood pressure monitor heart rate

13. What do you do if your client is showing signs of pallor during a fitness assessment? □ □ □ □

push through it reduce intensity discontinue the session monitor heart rate

14. Your client is recovering from abdominal surgery. What exercises would you recommend? □ □ □ □ □

crunches sit ups bench press all of the above none of the above

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15. What is the best amount of weight loss per week for a safe weight-loss program? □ □ □ □

1 to 2 pounds 2 to 4 pounds 4 to 6 pounds 6 to 10 pounds

16. Which of the following statements about the Valsalva maneuver is TRUE? □ □ □ □

It occurs when holding your breath. It requires forcible exhalation. It can occur during defecation. All of the above

17. All of these exercises are considered auxillary lifts except: □ □ □ □

lat pulldowns arm curls dips sit ups

18. Bench press and squats are examples of what kind of lifts? □ □ □ □

auxiliary lifts maximal lifts core lifts none of the above

19. Your client experiences pain while exercising that radiates into the jaw, neck and esophagus. He/she is most likely experiencing: □ □ □ □

angina increased cardiac output cardiac arrest dehydration

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20. The female athlete triad consists of which of the following? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

occasional decrease in appetite high estrogen levels osteoporosis lack of menstruation

21. Diagnosing a client's medical condition: □ □ □ □

is acceptable as long as you insist the client sees a doctor is negligent can expose you to liability should never be done; it is best to ignore any suspicious conditions

22. Your client’s heart rate is remaining steady despite a substantial increase in exercise intensity. What should you do? □ □ □ □

take a short break and try again increase the intensity to 80% THR refer client to a physician keep intensity constant but add duration

23. Your client wants to lose 25 pounds. What is the safest timeline for achieving this goal? □ □ □ □

15 weeks 25 weeks 30 weeks 50 weeks

24. Chronic fatigue, eating disorders, muscle soreness and joint aches are all signs of: □ □ □ □

muscle adaptation overtraining anorexia nervosa reduced cardiac output

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25. Which best describes the recovery position? □ □ □ □

client lying on back client sitting up laterally recumbent prone

26. A beta blocker is a(n): □ □ □ □

growth hormone hypertension medicine dynamic stretch enzyme catalyst

27. True or False? Walking can help build bone density.

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Answers 1. Take a short break and then continue training – This is not a dangerous situation. 2. Stop the session and send the client home to rest – This is not a dangerous situation, but the client should not continue training at this point. 3. Call an ambulance – This is a potentially dangerous situation. 4. Stop the session and send the client home to rest – This is not a dangerous situation, but the client should not continue training at this point. 5. Stop the session and send the client home to rest – This is not a dangerous situation, but the client should not continue training at this point. 6. Severe dehydration – This is a potentially dangerous situation, and professional medical assistance should be sought. 7. Moderate dehydration – It is important to know the difference between moderate and severe dehydration. Medical assistance is not necessary for moderate dehydration. 8. Symptoms of peripheral artery disease 9. Anorexia nervosa – Individuals with this disorder have distorted views of their bodies and may believe that excessive exercise is necessary. 10. Push through it – Ventricular ejection is a normal part of the cardiac process. It refers to when blood is ejected from the ventricle. 11. All of the above 12. Reduce intensity – This is the best course of action to take to avoid injury or over-training and to allow the client to get the most benefit from his/her aerobic exercise. 13. Discontinue the session – This could be a symptom of something more serious, and it is recommended that you refer the client to a medical professional. 14. None of the above – You should consult the client's physician for recommendations and consent before beginning an exercise program with this client. 15. 1 to 2 pounds – Many organizations recommend, however, that weight loss occur at a maximum of 1 pound per week for reasons of health and safety.

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16. All of the above – The Valsalva maneuver can be performed by forcibly exhaling against closed lips and holding your breath while exerting force into the abdominal region, as during defecation. It also can cause a temporary alteration in heart rate and blood pressure. 17. Lat pulldowns 18. Core lifts – The primary force is exerted through the core. 19. Angina – This condition results from a lack of blood flow and causes a feeling of suffocating pain. 20. Osteoporosis and lack of menstruation – The third element is disorderly eating patterns (not occasional decrease in appetite). Most female athletes experience a decrease in estrogen levels due to exercise. 21. Can expose you to liability – You should never diagnose a medical condition because the client views you as an authority figure and may not seek additional medical advice. 22. Refer client to a physician – This is a sign of a potentially serious cardiac problem. 23. 25 weeks (one pound per week) – However, some professionals claim it is safe to lose up to 2 pounds per week (which would mean 15 weeks is acceptable). Still, the SAFEST timeline is 25 weeks. 24. Overtraining 25. Laterally recumbent – The recovery position is a first aid technique recommended for assisting people who are unconscious, or nearly so, but are still breathing. 26. Hypertension medicine 27. True – Walking is a great activity for older individuals who are at a greater risk of losing bone density.

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Day 5, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review

Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • •

The role and function of neurons The Kinetic chain The anatomy of muscle growth The various types of muscle tissues

Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 7

1. Which statement is NOT true about muscle glycogen depletion? □ □ □ □

causes injury causes fatigue causes muscle growth is reduced by carbohydrate loading

2. True or False? Different muscle fibers are used for different tasks. 3. Which of the following statement(s) about the diaphragm is/are true? □ □ □ □

The diaphragm is not a true muscle. The diaphragm is a voluntary muscle. The diaphragm is flat when contracted. The diaphragm contracts the left ventricle.

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4. Neurons that communicate with each other are called: □ □ □ □

exoneurons endonuerons interneurons intraneurons

5. The Kinetic chain is made up of the: □ □ □ □

nervous system muscular system skeletal system all of the above

6. A neural end organ (like a tactile receptor) that responds to a mechanical stimulus (like a change in pressure) is called a(n): □ □ □ □

sensory neuron mechanoreceptor interneuron electroreceptor

7. Which term refers to a muscle activity with no change in muscle length? □ □ □ □

eccentric isometric concentric procentric

8. When a muscle is stretched, primary sensory fibers of the ____________ respond to both the velocity and the degree of stretch. □ □ □ □

muscle receptor muscle spindle gamma motorneurons intrafusal fibers

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Answers 1. Causes muscle growth – Muscles need glycogen to grow and to function properly. When muscle glycogen is depleted, it can cause fatigue and injury. Carbohydrate loading can decrease muscle glycogen depletion. 2. True – Muscles can perform a variety of tasks using its different fibers. 3. The diaphragm is flat when contracted is the TRUE statement. The diaphragm is the muscle used for breathing, and it is an involuntary muscle. 4. Interneurons 5. All of the above – The nervous, muscular and skeletal systems all form the kinetic chain. 6. Mechanoreceptor 7. Isometric 8. Muscle spindle

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Day 6, Quiz 1: Nutrition Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • • • •

Understanding the glycemic index Safe use of vitamins and supplements The USDA food pyramid Understanding food labels Good and bad cholesterol Calculating caloric intake

Step 2: Take +utrition Quiz 1 1. The glycemic index is affected by what kind of foods? □ □ □ □

fats carbohydrates proteins lipids

2. A food with a high glycemic index would cause which of the following conditions? □ □ □ □

protein production to rise diabetic shock low blood sugar high blood sugar

3. True or False? Vitamin A supplements should be taken during pregnancy.

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4. Taking too much of which of the following can interfere with the absorption of other minerals? □ □ □ □ □

vitamin A vitamin B12 vitamin D iron folic acid

5. Which of the following dietary guidelines is NOT correct? □ Restrict saturated fats, total fats and transfatty acids and select low-fat meat and dairy products to reduce the risk of obesity and obesity-related diseases. □ Select high-fiber fruits, vegetables and whole grains while limiting added sugars to ensure adequate fiber intake. □ Limit sodium and potassium intake to reduce the risk of developing hypertension. □ Consume alcoholic beverages responsibly to prevent alcohol-related illnesses and accidents. □ Practice safe food handling to reduce the risk of developing food-borne illnesses.

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Questions 6-10: Refer to the +utrition Label when answering these questions. 6. How many calories per serving are generated from fat? □ □ □ □

45 54 65 108

7. What percentage of one serving’s calories comes from fat? □ □ □ □

9% 17% 38% 43%

8. How many calories per serving are generated from carbohydrates? □ □ □ □

40 90 124 279

9. What percentage of one serving’s calories comes from protein? □ □ □ □

5% 8% 12% 18% +ote: A higher resolution, color image is available at http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z6n1k3s7.html

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10. The % of daily value column (the right column) is ______ for athletes. □ overstated □ understated □ correct for all populations End Label Questions 11. Which of the following can be caused by anabolic steroids? □ □ □ □ □

increased LDL decreased HDL jaundice all of the above none of the above

12. Vitamin B12 and folic acid play a critical role in which bodily function? □ □ □ □

hormonal secretion immune response white cell production red cell production

13. About half of all cases of anemia can be attributed to which of the following? □ □ □ □

iron deficiency excess vitamin A B12 deficiency obesity

14. True or False? High glycemic index foods are ideal before a workout. 15. True or False? Vitamins provide the body with energy and essential nutrients. 16. True or False? Vitamin C is fat soluble.

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17. A 500 calorie per day deficit will cause a weight loss of ____ pounds per week. □ □ □ □

1 to 2 2 to 3 3 to 4 4 to 5

18. The body requires at least ______ calories per day to get the necessary vitamins and minerals. □ □ □ □

1000 1200 1400 1600

19. A calorie is a measurement of: □ □ □ □

expenditure weight heat resistance

20. Cholesterol levels should be kept below: □ □ □ □

120 mg/dl 160 mg/dl 180 mg/dl 200 mg/dl

21. True or False? LDL is bad cholesterol; HDL is good cholesterol. 22. The best cooking oil for reducing cholesterol is? □ □ □ □

coconut corn organic butter palm

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23. A diet full of saturated fats is consistent with which of the following? □ □ □ □

lower LDL levels lower HDL levels elevated LDL levels elevated HDL levels

24. You have a meal consisting of 6 grams of fat, 12 grams of carbohydrates and 8 grams of protein. How many calories did you consume? □ □ □ □ □

120 134 144 154 none of the above

25. Which diet is more suitable for a healthy 20-year-old male?

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Answers 1. Carbohydrates – The body processes carbohydrates into sugar more quickly so they are most affected by the glycemic index. 2. High blood sugar – The glycemic index indicates how much sugar the body can use from a certain food. Thus, a food with a high glycemic index would most likely cause an increase in blood sugar. 3. False – Excess amounts of vitamin A can lead to birth defects. 4. Iron – Too much iron can hinder the ability of other vitamins and minerals to bind to blood cells and be adequately absorbed by the body. 5. Limit sodium and potassium intake to reduce the risk of developing hypertension – While it is recommended to limit sodium intake, potassium-rich foods reduce the risk of hypertension and should be eaten regularly. 6. 108 – There are 9 calories per 1 gram of fat. 12 x 9 = 108. 7. 43% – There are 250 calories per serving, 108 of which are from fat (see question #6). 108 / 250 = 0.43 (43%). 8. 124 – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of carbohydrates. 31 x 4 = 124. 9. 8% – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of protein (5 x 4 = 20). That means there are 250 calories in one serving, 20 of which are from protein. 20 / 250 = 0.08 (8%). 10. Overstated – Athletes usually require more calories than the 2000 to 2500 used to calculate daily values. 11. All of the above – Anabolic steroid use can cause jaundice, increased LDL (bad cholesterol) and decreased HDL (good cholesterol). 12. Red cell production 13. Iron deficiency – While vitamin B12 deficiency accounts for some cases of anemia, iron deficiency is the most common cause. 14. False – Lower and midlevel index foods are preferred to allow for sufficient energy availability and to avoid the “crash” often associated with high index foods. 15. False – Vitamins are essential nutrients, but they do not provide energy. 16. False – Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin, meaning it is not stored in the body and must be replaced daily. 17. 1 to 2 pounds – This is the most weight you can safely lose per week.

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18. 1200 – Any fewer calories and vitamin supplements are required to sustain the body, which is not healthy and can be potentially be dangerous. 19. Heat – A calorie is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C. A nutritionist's calorie is a unit of energy-producing potential equal to this amount of heat that is contained in food and released upon oxidation by the body. 20. 200 mg/dl – Higher cholesterol levels are unhealthy and could lead to cardiovascular problems. 21. True 22. Corn oil – Vegetable oils like corn, olive, sunflower and peanut oil are higher in unsaturated fats than other oils like palm and coconut. Vegetable oils also promote good cholesterol (HDL) and help to lower bad cholesterol (LDL). 23. Elevated LDL levels – Saturated fats increase LDL levels. While this also results in lowered HDL levels, the overall cholesterol level is significantly higher and so LDL levels are more important. 24. 134 – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of protein or carbohydrates and 9 calories per 1 gram of fat. 6 (fat) x 9 = 54. 12 (carbohydrates) x 4 = 48. 8 (protein) x 4 = 32. 54 + 48 + 32 = 134. 25. Diet A

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Day 6, Quiz 2: Nutrition Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • • • • • • •

The body chemistry of digestion Using MET values Eating disorders Weight loss techniques Calculating resting metabolic rate Proteins and amino acids Nutritional value of common foods (like eggs)

Step 2: Take +utrition Quiz 2 1. Moving household items and carrying boxes have a MET value of 7, while moving furniture has a MET value of 6. Which activity will burn more calories if they are both done for the same amount of time? □ carrying boxes □ carrying furniture □ not enough information to determine

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2. Moving household items and carrying boxes have a MET value of 7, while moving furniture has a MET value of 6. If a 100 kg man carries furniture for one hour, how many calories will he burn? □ □ □ □ □

550 600 630 750 none of the above

3. How many calories will the same man burn if he only works 30 minutes? □ □ □ □ □

220 268 290 315 none of the above

4. Glucose stored in the muscles is called: □ □ □ □

glycemia ATP lactic acid glycogen

5. Low to moderate intensity exercise is best suited for: □ □ □ □

burning fat burning carbs athletes bulking up

6. Which of the following refers to an eating disorder characterized by distorted body image? □ □ □ □

anorexia bulimia binge eating disorder anorexia nervosa

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7. Which of the following refers to an eating disorder characterized by recurrent binge eating without the regular use of compensatory measures? □ □ □ □

anorexia bulimia binge eating disorder anorexia nervosa

8. A safe weight loss program should consist of a diet of at least ________ calories per day. □ □ □ □

1000 1200 1400 1600

9. True or False? Egg yolks have more protein calories than fat calories. 10. True or False? Egg whites have more protein calories than fat calories. 11. True or False? Egg yolks have more protein calories than egg whites. 12. Which can be metabolized without the presence of oxygen? □ □ □ □

protein fat carbohydrates lipids

13. In which system does the body primarily use omega-3 fatty acids? □ □ □ □

respiratory system central nervous system cardiovascular system lymphatic system

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14. What is the appropriate course of action if your client shows signs of an eating disorder? □ □ □ □

provide emotional support refer him/her to a health care professional develop a healthy nutrition plan all of the above

15. Which of the following is responsible for burning the majority of calories burned in a day? □ □ □ □

daily activity like going to work or school moderate intensity exercise watching TV RMR

16. Your client is 90 kg (about 200 pounds) and is 188 cm tall (about 6’2”). His/her RMR would be: □ □ □ □ □

1450 2000 2160 2380 not sufficient information to calculate

17. What is the total calorie expenditure during a typical day for a 23-year-old female client who weighs 60 kg, is 170 cm tall and leads a highly active lifestyle? □ □ □ □ □

2160 2526 2937 3245 not sufficient information to calculate

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18. What are amino acids linked together by peptide bonds more commonly referred to as? □ □ □ □

proteins carbohydrates glucose none of the above

19. Which of the following statements about essential and non-essential amino acids is TRUE? □ Essential amino acids are synthesized by the body. □ Non-essential amino acids must be supplied through diet. □ There are nine essential amino acids. 20. A(n) ______ protein supplies the body with all essential amino acids. □ □ □ □

essential complete incomplete complex

21. The highest amount of a nutrient that a healthy person can consume without endangering his/her health is known as: □ □ □ □

maximum dietary allowance recommended dietary allowance adequate intake level tolerable upper intake level

22. What percentage of fat is suitable in a diet plan for somebody pursuing fat loss? □ □ □ □

0 to 5% 5 to 15% 15 to 30% 30 to 45%

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23. All carbohydrates are broken down into: □ □ □ □

incomplete proteins glucose essential amino acids ATP

24. Ketosis is caused by: □ □ □ □ □

overload of carbohydrates high protein diet excessive aerobic exercise low blood sugar none of the above

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Answers 1. Carrying boxes – This activity has a higher MET score, which means it burns more calories than carrying furniture. 2. 630 – This is calculated using the equation [(MET x 3.5 x body weight in kg) / 200] x duration in minutes. [(6 x 3.5 x 100) / 200] x 60 = 630 calories burned. 3. 315 – This is calculated using the same equation as question #2. [(6 x 3.5 x 100) / 200] x 30 = 315 calories burned. 4. Glycogen 5. Burning carbs – Burning fat, building muscle (bulking up) and the kind of exercise that athletes normally need all require higher levels of intensity. 6. Anorexia nervosa – It is important to remember that “anorexia” only refers to reduced appetite, while “anorexia nervosa” refers to the specific eating disorder. 7. Binge eating disorder – While it shares the binge-eating symptom of binge eating disorder, bulimia is characterized by the compensatory measure of purging to prevent weight gain. 8. 1200 calories – This is the minimum number of calories you can consume in one day and still receive the necessary vitamins, minerals and nutrients. 9. False – Egg yolks are considered the “cholesterol” of the egg and have more fat calories than protein calories. 10. True – Egg whites are high in protein calories. 11. False – They both have the same amount of protein calories, but egg yolks have more fat calories than egg whites. 12. Carbohydrates – The body processes carbohydrates most efficiently, and it is more difficult to break down proteins or fats/lipids. 13. Central nervous system – Omega-3 fatty acids are especially good for brain function and assist in forming and lubricating the myelin sheaths necessary for good neural function. 14. Refer them to a health care professional – Eating disorders require treatment by an experienced professional. Usually these individuals must be supervised by a physician while exercising for safety reasons and because excessive exercise can be a symptom of certain eating disorders.

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15. RMR – Your resting metabolic rate is the minimum number of calories your body needs to support your biological functions while you are resting and is responsible for the majority of calories burned in a day. 16. Not sufficient information to calculate – The standard RMR calculation requires you to know the person’s age since RMR is significantly affected by age, height and weight. 17. 2526 – First calculate the RMR for a female (9.99 x weight in kg) + (6.25 x height in cm) - (4.92 x age) - 161. (9.99 x 60 = 599.4) + (6.25 x 170 = 1062.5) - (4.92 x 23 = 113.16) - 161 = 1387.74 (round to 1388) calories burned during rest. Then multiply the RMR by a standard Activity Coefficient (for a highly active female this is 1.82). 1388 x 1.82 = 2526.16 (round to 2526). 18. Protein 19. There are 9 essential amino acids is the only TRUE statement – Essential amino acids must be supplied through diet as they cannot be synthesized by the body while the non-essential amino acids can by synthesized by the body using the essential amino acids. 20. Complete 21. Tolerable upper intake level – This is also referred to as UL. 22.15 to 30% – Normal daily fat intake should be around 30% so someone pursuing fat loss should not exceed 30%. However, some fat is necessary for proper body functioning. 23. Glucose 24. High protein diet – Ketosis, the body's starvation response, can also be induced by a low carbohydrate diet.

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Day 6, Quiz 3: Anatomy Review Step 1: Review Preparation This is the last anatomy review quiz. It contains random questions from topics already covered in this book.

Step 2: Take Anatomy Quiz 8 1. The longest muscle in the human body is the: □ □ □ □

latissimus dorsi soleus hamstrings sartorius

2. The iliopsoas are made up of the (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □ □

psoas major quadriceps iliacus rotator cuff soleus

3. The study of the action of external and internal forces on the living body, especially on the skeletal system, is called: □ □ □ □

kinesiology biomechanics performance management physiology

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4. What is required for aerobic activity to occur? □ □ □ □

a treadmill glucose oxygen lipids

5. Which muscle acts as the antagonist during ankle movement? □ □ □ □

soleus tibialis gastrocnemius sartorius

6. Hypertrophy is caused by an increased amount of: □ □ □ □

sarcomeres myosin myofibrils all of the above

7. Which statement about hyperplasia is true? □ □ □ □

Hyperplasia is a major factor in muscle growth. Hyperplasia creates new muscles. Hyperplasia creates new motor neurons. Hyperplasia creates new muscle fibers.

8. Calcium ions are an essential part of: □ □ □ □

bone growth bone strength muscle contraction hyperdisplasia

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Answers 1. Sartorius 2. Psoas major and iliacus 3. Biomechanics 4. Oxygen 5. Tibialis 6. All of the above – Increased amounts of sarcomeres, myosin and myofibrils all contribute to hypertrophy. 7. Hyperplasia creates new muscle fibers is the TRUE statement – Don't get hyperplasia confused with hypertrophy. Most muscle growth is due to hypertrophy. 8. Muscle contraction – Muscles cannot contract without the presence of calcium ions. They assist with the binding of actin and myosin.

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Day 7, Quiz 1: Training Special Populations Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • How to deal with common ailments and diseases • Understanding arthritis • Dealing with diabetes

Step 2: Take Training Special Populations Quiz 1 1. Rheumatoid arthritis affects the: □ □ □ □ □

bones joints ligaments tendons none of the above

2. The immune system attacks bodily tissues in which of the following disorders? □ □ □ □ □

osteoporosis cancer rheumatoid arthritis diabetes osteoarthritis

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3. The percentage of the U.S. population with diabetes is: □ □ □ □

2% 7% 15% 22%

4. Inflammation of the joints is characteristic of which of the following disorders? □ □ □ □ □

arthritis cancer rheumatoid arthritis diabetes hypertension

5. Your client has osteoporosis and wants to build bone density in his/her spine. What exercise would you recommend? □ □ □ □

calf raise squat back extension hip adduction

6. Elderly people with forward rounded shoulders and body curvature are likely suffering from which of the following? □ □ □ □

scoliosis bulimia lordosis kyphosis

7. Gestational diabetes affects: □ □ □ □

infants overweight adults pregnant women elderly women

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8. Insulin resistance combined with insulin deficiency is indicative of which of the following? □ □ □ □

pre-diabetes Type I diabetes Type II diabetes gestational diabetes

9. True or False? An athlete with a BMI of 18 can be considered obese. 10. True or false? Maximum Heart Rate (MHR) increases in people over age 55. 11. The expected range of normal body fat in adults ______ with age. □ increases □ decreases □ stays the same 12. Which of the following is commonly the precursor to osteoporosis? □ □ □ □

osteopenia osteoarthritis elevated bone mass scoliosis

13. An altered ability to utilize glucose is known as: □ □ □ □

diabetes glucoxia hypertension bulimia nervosa

14. Muscle size declines quickly after reaching what age? □ □ □ □

40 50 60 70

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15. Pre-diabetes is a condition marked by which of the following? □ □ □ □

elevated insulin levels elevated glucose levels lowered glucose levels none of the above

16. The body's failure to produce insulin is characteristic of which type of diabetes? □ □ □ □

pre-diabetes Type I diabetes Type II diabetes gestational diabetes

17. Which of the following exercise positions can aggravate hypertension? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

supine prone medial all of the above

18. True or False? Obese people can benefit from proprioceptive training. 19. Anabolic steroid use in children can cause which of the following? □ □ □ □

excessive growth decelerated puberty skeletal maturation all of the above

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Answers 1. Joints – Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto-immune disorder that causes deterioration and pain in the joints. 2. Rheumatoid arthritis – The immune system begins attacking the tissues of the joints. 3. 7% 4. Arthritis – Inflamed joints are characteristic of arthritis while joint degeneration is the hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis. 5. Back extension – None of the other exercises mentioned would build bone density in the spine. 6. Kyphosis – Otherwise known as hunchback, this is a common condition among elderly people due to degeneration of the muscles and joints. 7. Pregnant women 8. Type II diabetes 9. True – A BMI of < 18.5 is usually defined as being underweight. However, if the fat hinders athletic performance, the athlete is considered obese. 10. False – Maximum heart rate declines with age as expressed in this formula: MHR = 200 – age. 11. Increases – The body’s metabolism naturally slows down with age and thus the body does not burn fat as efficiently. 12. Osteopenia 13. Diabetes – Insulin is the body’s primary glucose regulator and individuals with diabetes have trouble producing or utilizing it properly. 14. 60 15. Elevated glucose levels – Elevated glucose levels are usually one of the first warning signs of diabetes. 16. Type I diabetes 17. Supine and prone – Blood pressure changes most drastically when going from a lying position (supine or prone) to a standing position so exercising in a medial position is best for hypertension. 18. True 19. Skeletal maturation

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Day 7, Quiz 2: Training Special Populations Step 1: Review Preparation These are the topics you should review before taking the quiz. Take about 15 minutes to review the study materials provided by your certification provider to refresh your memory. • How to train pregnant clients safely • Unique characteristics of training children and teenagers • Physiological changes in older populations and how to train them effectively

Step 2: Take Training Special Populations Quiz 2 1. Exercise positions that should be avoided by pregnant women in the second trimester or later include (choose ALL correct answers): □ supine □ prone □ medial 2. Pregnant clients can continue moderate exercise levels until the _______ trimester. □ □ □ □ □

second third fourth only low intensity exercise is advisable during pregnancy moderate exercise is safe during all trimesters

3. True or False? Children are able to perform anaerobic activity for longer periods than adults.

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4. True or False? Children have less tolerance for temperature extremes during exercise. 5. Pregnant women exercising in the supine position can experience which of the following? □ □ □ □

fetal distress reduced cardiac output carbon dioxide poisoning extreme cramping

6. Pregnant women require an extra _____ calories per day. □ □ □ □ □

300 500 700 1000 no extra calories are required

7. According to the CDC, a 10-year-old girl with a BMI of 28 is considered: □ □ □ □

underweight normal overweight obese

8. Training activities that are acceptable for children include which of the following? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

running bodybuilding endurance training 1RM lifting

9. Which exercise is more suitable for children? □ leg press □ leg curl

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10. Which of the following methods is the best way to increase workload when training children? □ □ □ □

increase duration increase load increase reps increase caloric deficit

11. Your new client is pregnant and has no previous experience with a workout program. What is the appropriate course of action? □ □ □ □

start a weight training program start a balanced weight training and aerobic program refuse your services none of the above

12. When training, pregnant women should never exceed which of the following? □ □ □ □

40% of THR 40% of MHR 40% of 1RM 140 bpm heart rate

13. Your client is pregnant and complaining of lower back pain. What should you recommend? (choose ALL correct answers) □ □ □ □

avoiding high heel shoes walking for 30 minutes per day place a pillow between the knees at night all of the above

14. Normal weight gain during pregnancy falls within which of the following parameters? □ □ □ □

2 to 5 pounds during the first trimester 1 pound per week in the second trimester 1 pound per week in the third trimester all of the above

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15. Senior citizens should train at: □ □ □ □

80 to 90% THR 30 to 40% THR 30 to 40% 1RM 40 to 50% 1RM

16. When training elderly clients, you should have them perform _______ compared to younger clients. □ □ □ □

more weight more frequency more reps more intensity

17. Which population should have a minimum of one hour of moderate intensity physical exercise per day? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □ □

children healthy adults injured adults senior citizens pre-natal women

18. Strength training in youths can put excess strain on which of the following? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

muscles tendons growth plates all of the above

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Answers 1. Supine and prone – The prone position can potentially cause injury to the fetus, and the supine position can place too much weight on the blood vessels and restrict blood flow. 2. The third trimester – While some experts assert that pregnant women can continue moderate intensity exercise throughout pregnancy, it is not standard physician recommendation, and often women are simply too uncomfortable to continue moderate intensity exercise. 3. False – Children should actually perform less anaerobic activity than adults. 4. True – Children have smaller bodies and less surface area to help them adjust to temperature extremes, especially heat. 5. Reduced cardiac output – Exercising in the supine position restricts blood flow, which reduces cardiac output. 6. 300 calories – It is important to note that these are needed calories and should not be burned off during exercise. 7. Overweight – BMI levels are the same for children as adults so a BMI of 28 would indicate the girl is overweight. 8. Endurance training and running – Children should not engage in bodybuilding or 1RM lifting as their bodies cannot effectively handle these exercises. It could also cause serious injury or growth problems. 9. Leg press – Multi-joint exercises are preferable to single joint exercises. 10. Increase reps – Increasing load or duration can place undue stress on a growing child’s body. You should not increase caloric deficit for children without the recommendation of a physician or dietician. 11. None of the above – Weight training should not commence while pregnant if the client has no prior experience, nor should you refuse your services because there are several workout programs recommended during pregnancy. It should be noted that NASM's position on this is pregnant women can start a resistance training program if kept with light resistance loads and is within their level of flexibility and stabilization. 12. 140 beats per minute heart rate – Once again, NASM's view is a little different. They allow pregnant women to have a heart rate up to 160 beats per minute when accustomed to a moderate intensity workout.

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13. All of the above – Each of these measures can help reduce lower back pain in pregnant women. 14. All of the above – This is the standard progression of weight gain for pregnant women who were at a normal, healthy weight when they became pregnant. It should be noted that weight gain progression is slightly different for underweight or overweight women. 15. 40 to 50% 1RM 16. More reps – Increasing weight, frequency or intensity could cause serious injury in older adults. 17. Children – Note: NASM only recommends a minimum of 20 minutes of moderate intensity exercise for children. 18. All answers are correct – It should be noted that this topic is controversial. NASM has found through studies that resistance training in the 5- to 14-yearold age group has been associated with a decrease in the number of common injuries and that it is both safe and effective. However, this is not common practice among other groups.

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Day 8: Links to Certification Specific Exam Information This section deals with all the differences between the various certifications. While most certifications have a lot in common, each certification provider has its own unique philosophy and agenda. It is important to understand this and adjust for it when taking the exam. For example, some certifications are ultra conservative when it comes to safety and liability while others are more liberal. Study the comments submitted by people who have taken the exams to get a better understanding of what you are facing. Review the links below for the certification exam that you are preparing for.

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Day 8 ACE Quiz 1. You are working with a 70-year-old client with borderline hypertension. Although this client has been cleared by his/her physician, which of the following precautions should you take? □ monitor blood pressure and avoid the Valsalva maneuver □ lower resistance and increase repetitions, avoid the Valsalva maneuver and monitor blood pressure □ avoid the Valsalva maneuver and encourage isometric exercise □ encourage isometric exercise, monitor blood pressure and avoid the Valsalva maneuver 2. During a discussion, your client is verbally agreeing with your suggestions. However, you notice that she is sitting with her arms crossed and her eyes downcast. What is the BEST next step for the personal trainer? □ □ □ □

go over the exercises she just performed again ask her how she feels about the program refer her to a qualified health professional tell her she needs to get a better attitude

3. Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm? □ □ □ □

infraspinatus subscapularis supraspinatus teres minor

4. Ed is 55 years old and has a resting heart rate of 76 beats per minute. What is Ed’s maximum heart rate? □ □ □ □

135 165 76 88

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5. Using the previous question, what is Ed’s target heart rate? □ □ □ □

100 to 109 108 to 128 129 to 147 145 to 165

6. The theory that the thin and thick filaments of a myofibril maintain their initial length while sliding past each other during muscle contraction is known as: □ □ □ □

myofibril theory contraction length theory sliding filament theory developing myofibril theory

7. When the distal segment of an extremity is free, what kind of exercise is occurring? □ open-chain exercise □ closed-chain exercise 8. Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise? □ □ □ □

jumping rope bench press squat leg lifts

9. Overly tight hip flexors and lower back muscles are usually indicative of which postural condition? □ □ □

scoliosis lordosis kyphosis

10. True or False? It is recommended that people exercise at the same level of intensity when at a high altitude as they would at sea level.

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11. It is a hot day and your 68-year-old client has been exercising for 10 minutes. Her face is red, she is sweating and she seems to be slowing down although the level of intensity is low. What is the BEST course of action? □ □ □ □

motivate her to keep going ask her if she needs a break and offer her water stop the session and tell her to go home request professional medical assistance

12. Tim weighs 235 pounds with 20% body fat. If Tim succeeds in lowering his body fat to 10%, how much will he weigh then? □ □ □ □

220 pounds 209 pounds 200 pounds 198 pounds

13. Average cardiac output for a male is: □ □ □ □

4.5 L per minute 5.0 L per minute 5.5 L per minute 6.0 L per minute

14. Which of the following exercises would NOT be recommended for someone who suffers from shoulder impingement pain? □ □ □ □

walking overhead lifts squats leg lifts

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15. A client comes to you and says she wants to lose 15 pounds in 3 weeks for her college graduation. What would be the BEST course of action? □ □ □ □

Explain to the client that it is unsafe to lose that much weight in only three weeks and offer to work with her to lose weight safely. Increase the intensity and length of her sessions so she’s burning more calories and can reach her weight loss goal. Prescribe a new low-calorie diet for her and increase her sessions from three per week to five per week. Refer her to a dietician and mental health professional.

16. What is the FIRST thing you should do if you see a client lying unconscious on the ground? □ □ □ □

begin chest compressions tilt client’s head and listen for breathing check for unresponsiveness and call for help if client does not respond roll client over on his/her face

17. What kind of stretching includes controlled arm and leg movements that gently stretch you to the limits of your range of motion? □ □ □ □

dynamic stretching PNF stretching isometric stretching static stretching

18. The hold-relax technique is an example of what kind of stretching? □ □ □ □

dynamic stretching PNF stretching isometric stretching static stretching

19. True or False? Overuse of diuretics can induce dehydration.

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20. Which of the following is NOT recommended for progression during circuit training? □ □ □

increasing station time decreasing rest intervals increasing station time and decreasing rest intervals at the same time

21. How often should someone engage in circuit training? □ □ □ □

2 to 4 times per week 1 to 2 times per week 5 to 6 times per week 7 or more times per week

22. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic applications of circuit training? □ □ □ □

general physical fitness intense flexibility development strength endurance development basic strength development

23. What is the proper way to breathe during weight training? □ □ □ □

Inhale during the concentric phase of the lift and exhale during the eccentric phase. Exhale during the concentric phase of the lift and inhale during the eccentric phase. Inhale during the concentric phase of the lift, exhale and inhale again during the eccentric phase. Hold your breath.

24. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages associated with over-training during progressive overload? □ □ □ □

alarm phase resistance phase regression phase exhaustion phase

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25. Identify the five major weight training phases in the correct progression. □ □ □ □

endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, peak endurance, strength, hypertrophy, peak, power endurance, power, strength, hypertrophy, peak strength, endurance, hypertrophy, power, peak

26. True or False? Performance improves during the Alarm Phase of over-training during progressive overload. 27. Which of the following is NOT one of the three conditioning stages of progression for cardiovascular endurance exercise programs? □ □ □ □

initial stage improvement stage strength stage maintenance stage

28. How long does the initial conditioning stage of cardiovascular endurance training generally last? □ □ □ □

2 to 4 weeks 4 to 6 weeks 16 to 20 weeks 20 to 24 weeks

29. You should gradually overload your muscles in order to get the best improvement in muscle strength. This adequately describes: □ □ □ □

the principle of overload the principle of progression the principle of strength the principle of specificity

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30. Which of the following is an example of an overuse injury? □ □ □ □

ankle sprain hamstring muscle strain wrist fracture shin splints

31. True or False? Training errors are the most common cause of overuse injuries. 32. Overuse injuries are initially treated with R.I.C.E. What does this acronym stand for? □ □ □ □

Raising, Ice, Compression, Edema Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation Room, Inertia, Cold, Elevation Rest, Inertia, Compression, Edema

33. Which of the following is the most common muscle protein? □ □ □ □

actin myosin lactic acid albumen

34. True or False? Albumen is the protein mechanism responsible for muscle contraction. 35. What is a strain? □ □ □ □

an injury to a ligament an injury to a muscle or tendon an injury to a bone an injury to an organ

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36. What is a sprain? □ □ □ □

an injury to a ligament an injury to a muscle or tendon an injury to a bone an injury to an organ

37. According to Food Pyramid guidelines, the caloric intake at which weight maintenance occurs is a person’s: □ □ □ □

discretionary calories energy density energy allowance glycemic load

38. True or False? You can lose weight through exercise, even if your diet remains the same.

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Answers 1. Lower resistance and increase repetitions, avoid the Valsalva maneuver and monitor blood pressure – Due the client’s age and borderline hypertension, you want to increase endurance rather than strength and should avoid the Valsalva maneuver, which could lead to a myocardial infarction, as well as monitor blood pressure to make sure he/she is not being overstrained. 2. Ask her how she feels about the program – Although your client is verbally agreeing, her body language indicates that something is wrong. Asking the client how she feels will open the lines of communication and lead to better results in the long run. 3. Supraspinatus 4. 165 – Maximum heart rate is calculated 220 minus age. 220 - 55 = 165 5. 129 to 147 – Target heart rate is calculated using the Karvonen formula and should be between 60 – 80% of maximum heart rate. Maximum heart rate for Ed is 165. 165 – resting heart rate (76) = 89, the maximum reserve rate. 89 x 0.6 (60%) + resting heart rate (76) = 129.4 (low range). 89 x 0.8 (80%) + resting heart rate (76) = 147.2 (high range). 6. Sliding filament theory 7. Open-chain exercise 8. Squat – Closed-chain exercises occur when the distal segment of an extremity is fixed, as in a squat where the foot is on the ground. 9. Lordosis – More commonly known as sway-back, lordosis causes the person to lean backwards due to severely contracted muscles in the lower back and hip flexors. 10. False – Due to the way the body reacts to higher altitudes, people usually cannot exercise at the same level of intensity without risk of serious injury or medical problems. 11. Ask her if she needs a break and offer her water – The body’s ability to respond to heat decreases with age and thus, older adults have a higher risk of suffering a heat-related illness. It is important to monitor older adults more closely on hot days. 12. 209 pounds – If 20% of Tim’s weight is body fat, his lean muscle mass (80%) is 188. If his new body fat percentage is 10, his lean muscle mass would be 90% (0.9). 188 divided by 0.9 = 208.8 (round up). 153 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

13. 5.0 L per minute – Average cardiac output for males is 5 L per minute and 4.5 L per minute for females. 14. Overhead lifts – Raising the arms during overhead lifts (in addition to the weight lifted) can severely exacerbate the pain suffered by those with shoulder impingement. 15. Explain to the client that it is unsafe to lose that much in only three weeks and offer to work with her to lose weight safely – Physicians recommend no more than two pounds of weight loss per week for safety and health reasons. 16. Check for unresponsiveness and call for help if s/he do not respond – You should NOT begin chest compressions or listen for breathing until you have ascertained that the person is unresponsive. 17. Dynamic stretching 18. PNF stretching – This kind of stretching is intended to increase static-passive flexibility, as is achieved during a hold-relax muscle movement. 19. True 20. Increasing station time and decreasing rest intervals at the same time – This is unsafe and could lead to an overload. 21. 2 to 4 times per week – This is the recommended number of times a person should engage in circuit training to receive the most benefits without overload or injury. 22. Intense flexibility development – Circuit training is not designed to significantly increase flexibility and instead is more useful for strength and endurance. 23. Exhale during the concentric phase of the lift and inhale during the eccentric phase – This method utilizes oxygen most effectively while lifting. 24. Regression phase – The three stages associated with progressive overload overtraining are: alarm phase, resistance phase and exhaustion phase. 25. Endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, peak 26. False – Fatigue and general weakness occur during the Alarm Phase, while performance improves during the Resistance Phase. 27. Strength conditioning phase – During cardiovascular training, the focus is on building cardiovascular endurance, not physical strength. 28. 4 to 6 weeks – This is the recommended amount of time to build a conditioning baseline without too much exertion.

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29. The principle of progression 30. Shin splints – Overuse injuries are the result of repetitive trauma, not a single traumatic event as in the case of strains, sprains and fractures. 31. True 32. Rest – Ice – Compression – Elevation = R.I.C.E. 33. Myosin 34. False – Actomyosin (a combination of actin and myosin) provides the mechanism for muscle contraction. 35. An injury to a muscle or tendon 36. An injury to a ligament 37. Energy allowance 38. False – You cannot lose weight unless you are burning more calories than you consume, which means you must intake fewer calories to lose weight. It is important to note that about 1% of people who lose weight and keep it off long term have done it with exercise alone, but this is so rare that is not counted.

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Day 8: ACSM Quiz 1. True or False? The body’s ability to acquire, convert, store and use energy is referred to as bioenergetics. 2. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic components of every education-based personal training session? □ □ □ □

initial client consultation motivational preparation exercise implementation and practice assessment of achieved objectives

3. Training session preparation has four specific components. What are these four components? □ achievable goals, client motivation, client learning style, creative application □ client learning style, trainer teaching style, creative application, effective assessment □ achievable goals, an intelligent plan, client learning style, effective assessment □ trainer teaching style, creative application, effective assessment, achievable goals 4. SET stands for: □ □ □ □

Sequential Exercise Training Safe Exercise Training System Evaluation Training Sequential Evaluation Training

5. True or False? Effective, engaging and efficient exercise programs focus on the needs of the client, not the trainer’s goals.

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6. Visual observation and evaluation of a client’s mastery of skills and exercises without the use of machines is what kind of analysis? □ quantitative □ qualitative 7. Which of the following is NOT one of the three cardinal planes of the body? □ □ □ □

transverse plane frontal plane anterior plane sagittal plane

8. Which of the following is NOT one of the three axes of the body? □ □ □ □

longitudinal axis proximal axis mediolateral axis anteroposterior axis

9. The sit and reach test is a valid measure of flexibility for: □ □ □ □

the biceps the lower back and hamstrings the peronei the triceps

10. Which of the following vitamins is NOT fat-soluble? □ □ □ □ □

vitamin K vitamin C vitamin A vitamin E vitamin D

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Please answer questions 11 - 12 using the client example given below. John is a 35-year-old male wishing to begin a fitness routine. Upon assessment, his blood pressure was 136/80, and his total serum cholesterol was 235 mg/dl. He reported a family history of myocardial infarction but no personal history. He does not smoke, but reported that he has never engaged in an exercise routine before. 11. According to the ACSM risk stratification guidelines, John is at what level of risk? □ □ □

low risk moderate risk high risk

12. Which of the following are John’s risk factors? □ □ □ □ □

elevated serum cholesterol family history of myocardial infarction sedentary lifestyle all of the above none of the above

13. Risk factor stratification can be modified with which of the following? □ □ □ □ □

exercise training risk factor reduction surgical intervention stress reduction all of the above

14. True or False? A physician must be present during a physical or submaximal test for a moderate risk client. 15. True or False? A cardiac patient can begin a fitness routine while waiting to get a physical from his/her physician. 158 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

Please answer questions 16 - 19 using the client example given below. Eloise is a 40-year-old clearly obese woman who wants to lose weight. She has not consulted a physician about beginning an exercise routine. She has no medical history of cardiopulmonary disease, but upon assessment had edema around her ankles, was short of breath after only walking into the room and had elevated blood pressure. 16. How many risk factors does Eloise have? □ □ □ □

one two three none

17. Which of the following is NOT one of Eloise’s risk factors? □ □ □ □

obesity hypertension age signs/symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease

18. According to the ACSM risk stratification guidelines, Eloise is at what level of risk? □ □ □

low risk moderate risk high risk

19. True or False? You should refer Eloise to her physician to be tested and cleared to begin an exercise program before beginning to work with her.

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20. What is the most common type of musculoskeletal lever in the human body? □ □ □ □

first-class second-class third-class fourth-class

21. A resting body tends to remain at rest, but a moving body will continue moving unless acted upon by an external force. This is an adequate definition for the law of: □ □ □ □

gravity stabilization inertia motion

22. Measurement of the pulse during exercise is most commonly done at which site? □ □ □ □

femoral radial popliteal dorsal pedal

23. Which of the following is one of the standard sites for the measurement of circumference? □ □ □ □

neck abdomen ankle fingers

24. The rear-foot motion called supination results from a combination of: □ □ □ □

abduction, eversion and dorsiflexion adduction, inversion and plantarflexion abduction, inversion and plantarflexion adduction, eversion and dorsiflexion

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25. Running has which of the following characteristics that walking does not? □ □ □ □

decreased stride length increased stride length period of non-support period of double-support

26. Nodding the head would be an example of what kind of musculoskeletal lever? □ □ □ □

first-class second-class third-class fourth-class

27. Exercise prescriptions are designed to do which of the following? □ □ □ □ □

enhance physical fitness reduce risk factors for chronic disease and promote health endure safety all of the above none of the above

28. The components that are essential to a systematic and individualized exercise prescription are: □ □ □ □

mode, duration, intensity, progression of physical activity and frequency intensity, duration, degeneration, allowance and progression of physical activity mode, duration and frequency of physical activity frequency and mode of physical activity

29. True or False? The five essential components of exercise prescription apply to individuals of all ages and fitness levels, regardless of health.

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30. According to ACSM guidelines, the typical format of an exercise session should include: □ □ □ □

a warm-up period, a stimulus or conditioning phase, an optional recreational phase and a cool-down period a warm-up period, a recreational phase and a cool-down period a stimulus or conditioning phase, an optional recreational phase and a cool-down period a warm-up period, a stimulus or conditioning phase and a cool-down period

Please answer questions 31 – 35 using the following information. Alice is a 40-year-old woman who wants to start an exercise program to lose weight. Currently she weighs 155 pounds, is 5 feet 5 inches tall and smokes 3-4 cigarettes per day. She has never engaged in a regular exercise program, but has no medical conditions or family history of medical conditions that would keep her from exercise. In addition, when asked about her normal diet, Alice indicated she had consumed 15 grams of protein, 25 grams of carbohydrates, 45 grams of fat and 224 grams of alcohol that day and that this was a fair representation of her overall diet. 31. What is Alice’s BMI? □ □ □ □

21 23.4 25.7 29

32. According to Alice’s BMI, she is: □ □ □ □

slightly underweight at a healthy weight slightly overweight obese

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33. How many calories has Alice consumed today? □ □ □ □

500 1069 2011 2133

34. According to ACSM risk stratification guidelines, what level of risk is Alice? □ □ □

low risk moderate risk high risk

35. As a personal trainer, which of the following would you suggest for Alice? □ □ □ □

quit smoking consider decreasing alcohol intake decrease fat intake and eat more fruits and vegetables all of the above

36. Which of the following is NOT one of the common indicators of cardiovascular over-training? □ □ □ □

altered blood pressure decreased performance increased muscle soreness increased aerobic capacity

37. Which of the following is a function of nutrients? □ □ □ □

provide energy promote and sustain growth regulate body processes all of the above

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38. Blockages of the arteries in the brain cause: □ □ □ □

myocardial infarction stroke high cholesterol coronary artery disease

Answers 1. True 2. Motivational preparation – This is not part of the education-based model, and client motivation is a part of goal reviewing. 3. Achievable goals, an intelligent plan, client learning style, effective assessment 4. Sequential Exercise Training 5. True 6. Qualitative – Quantitative assessments have clearly defined methods and ranges (i.e., blood pressure, weight, height, etc.) 7. Anterior plane 8. Proximal axis 9. The lower back and hamstrings 10. Vitamin C 11. Moderate risk – John is at moderate risk because he is under 45 and has one or more risk factors, according to ACSM risk guidelines. 12. All of the above 13. All of the above 14. False – A physician only needs to be present for high risk clients or moderate risk clients undergoing a maximal test. 15. False – Cardiac patients must be cleared by their physician PRIOR to beginning any exercise program. 16. Three – Eloise is obese, has signs and symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease and elevated blood pressure. 164 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

17. Age – Because she is under 55, her age is not a risk factor. 18. High risk – Despite her age, Eloise’s signs and symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease and her obesity place her in the high-risk category. 19. True 20. Third-class – These levers have the effort, or muscle, instead of the fulcrum, in the middle. The forearm, pulled by the bicep muscles, is an example of a third-class lever. 21. Inertia 22. Radial – The easiest pulses to obtain during exercise are the carotid pulse and the radial pulse. 23. Abdomen – Neck and ankle measurements are unreliable gauges of a person’s circumference. 24. Adduction, inversion and plantarflexion 25. Period of non-support – While running there is a short period where both feet are off the ground. Conversely, during walking you have a period of doublesupport where both feet are on the ground. 26. First-class – Nodding the head is an example of the use of a first-class lever. These levers have the fulcrum in the middle, similar to a seesaw. 27. All of the above 28. Mode, duration, intensity, progression of physical activity and frequency 29. True 30. A warm-up period, a stimulus or conditioning phase, an optional recreational phase and a cool-down period 31. 25.7 – BMI is calculated by dividing weight (155) by height squared (65 x 65 = 4225) = 0.036 times 703 = 25.7. 32. Slightly overweight – BMI for normal health weight is between 18.6 and 24.9. 33. 2133 – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of carbohydrates or protein, 9 calories per 1 gram of fat and 7 calories per 1 gram of alcohol. 15 x 4 = 60. 25 x 4 = 100. 9 x 45 = 405. 7 x 224 = 1568. Total = 2133 34. Moderate risk – Alice is under 55 and has two risk factors: cigarette smoking and sedentary lifestyle. 35. All of the above – Quit smoking for overall health, consider decreasing alcohol intake for overall health and weight loss and decrease fat intake and 165 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

eat more fruits and vegetables for overall health and weight loss. 36. Increased aerobic capacity – When cardiovascular over-training occurs, aerobic capacity can be decreased. 37. All of the above – Nutrients function to provide energy to the body, promote and sustain growth and regulate body processes. 38. Stroke

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Day 8 AFAA Quiz 1. True or False? Static, or passive, stretching is the safest way to stretch. 2. True or False? If it does not hurt when you are stretching, you are not doing it right. 3. Which of the following would you NOT recommend when offering nutritional guidelines to your clients? □ □ □ □

keep food intake regular—do not skip meals select a variety of foods from all of the basic food groups take a lot of energy and dietary supplements avoid high-sugar and high-fat foods

4. Which of the following is an example of isometric exercise? □ □ □ □

bent-knee quad sets leg lifts push ups bench press

5. A joint with a ligament instability is also known as a: □ □ □ □

gliding joint saddle joint hypomobile joint hypermobile joint

6. Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the scapula? □ □ □ □

teres major teres minor adductor magnus supraspinatus

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7. Poor blood volume can prevent the heart from pumping enough blood to the body and can create serious problems during exercise if not properly considered. What is this condition called? □ □ □ □

myocarditis aortic aneurysm aortic insufficiency hypovolemic shock

8. The body’s ability to physiologically adjust to an unfamiliar environment and achieve a new steady state is known as: □ □ □ □

environment relation acclimatization climate shift evolution

9. The principle of muscle contraction that states that all of the muscle fibers will maximally contract when a motor unit is activated is known as: □ □ □ □

the all-or-none principle the maximizing principle the activation principle none of the above

10. Which of the following is an example of an anthropometric assessment? □ □ □ □

skin fold measurement weight circumference measurement all of the above

11. What is the correct definition of aponeurosis? □ □ □ □

neural deficiency that causes muscle atrophy tendinous expansion that connects a muscle to the parts it moves inflamed neural pathways none of the above

12. True or False? Antecubital space is the space just in front of the elbow. 168 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

13. The place of junction between two or more bones is known as the: □ □ □ □

baroreceptor articulation point of insertion point of friction

14. Which of the following methods of determining body composition measures the body’s resistance to electrical flow? □ □ □ □

Body Mass Index (BMI) Bioelectrical Impedance (BIA) Hydrostatic Weighing Skin fold measurement

15. Which of the following behaviors is NOT characteristic of an eating disorder? □ □ □ □

binging and purging refusing to eat anything at all cutting back on fats and sugars none of the above

16. Which of the following clients would most likely engage in carbohydrate loading? □ □ □ □

a client wanting to lose weight a client preparing to run a marathon a client trying to control his/her diabetes all of the above

17. What is the active or passive circular movement of a joint called? □ □ □ □

adduction abduction circumduction flexion

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18. Which of the following foods is an example of a complete protein? □ □ □ □

eggs cheese beef all of the above

19. Continuous training refers to a conditioning exercise in which the appropriate intensity is continuously maintained between ____________ of maximal oxygen consumption (functional capacity). □ □ □ □

20 to 30% 35 to 50% 50 to 85% 80 to 90%

20. True or False? Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) is usually associated with concentric muscle contractions. 21. True or False? Clients with emphysema do not need a medical release from their physician. 22. Gait refers to: □ □ □ □

a doorway manner or style of walking disorder of the lymphatic system none of the above

23. If a person is deficient in potassium they are said to have: □ □ □ □

hypoglycemia hypokinesis hypokalemia hypotonic

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24. A solution having less effective osmotic pressure equivalency than bodily fluids is referred to as: □ □ □ □

hypoglycemia hypokinesis hypokalemia hypotonic

25. Which of the following is an example of isotonic exercise? □ □ □ □

running lifting free weights jumping rope sit ups

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Answers 1. True 2. False – Stretches are designed to promote flexibility, but this is a gradual process, and it should not hurt when you are stretching. 3. Take a lot of energy and dietary supplements – A well-balanced diet should provide all the nutrients you need, even if you are exercising regularly. Supplements can create nutritional imbalances and even serious medical conditions. 4. Bent-knee quad sets – Isometric exercises involve contracting the muscles, not moving weight through space, as with the bench press, leg lifts, or push ups. 5. Hypermobile joint 6. Adductor magnus 7. Hypovolemic shock 8. Acclimatization 9. The all-or-none principle 10. All of the above – Anthropometric assessments measure and analyze human body parts and include skinfold measurement, weight and circumference measurement. 11. Tendinous expansion that connects a muscle to the parts it moves 12. True 13. Articulation 14. Bioelectrical Impedance (BIA) 15. Cutting back on fats and sugars – This is a healthy eating behavior and is not indicative of an eating disorder. Binging and purging and refusal to eat are characteristics of bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa, two of the most common eating disorders. 16. A client preparing to run a marathon – Carbohydrate loading is a period of training intensity and carbohydrate intake manipulation prior to an endurance event in order to achieve maximum glycogen storage. 17. Circumduction 18. All of the above – All animal proteins, including eggs, cheese and beef, are complete proteins, meaning they have all nine of the essential amino acids. 19. 50 to 85% 172 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

20. False – Eccentric muscle contractions are usually the cause of delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS). 21. False – Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that reduces oxygen levels, thus clients MUST be cleared by their physicians before engaging in an exercise program. 22. Manner or style of walking 23. Hypokalemia 24. Hypotonic 25. Lifting free weights – Isotonic exercises are strength training exercises where the weight or load is constant and the muscle shortens and lengthens, as occurs while lifting free weights.

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Day 8 ISSA Quiz 1. Which of the following refers to the characteristic of muscle that allows it to shorten and thicken? □ □ □ □

eccentricity flexibility contractility mobility

2. Actively closing the glottis and bearing down to create pressure in the chest results in diminished blood flow to the heart and a decrease in blood pressure. This is an adequate description of the: □ □ □ □

Heimlich maneuver Valsalva maneuver proper way to breathe ability to control blood volume

3. In which plane are flexion and extension movements normally performed? □ □ □ □

anterior posterior sagittal all of the above

4. The elbow is an example of what kind of joint? □ □ □ □

ball and socket hinge pivot gliding

5. Movement away from the body is known as: □ □ □ □

adduction abduction concentric eccentric

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6. Which of the following is NOT one of the normal curves of the spine? □ □ □ □

thoracic lumbar sternal cervical

7. True or False? A prudent personal trainer will recommend dietary or energy supplements to their clients. 8. What kind of exercise is typically prescribed for effective weight loss? □ □ □ □

resistance training only aerobic activity only moderate intensity, long duration aerobic activity with moderate resistance training high intensity, short duration aerobic activity with moderate resistance training

9. What is the average exercise dropout rate after the first year? □ □ □ □

10% 25% 35% 50%

10. What kind of cholesterol is referred to as good cholesterol because it reduces the risk of plaques forming in the arteries? □ □ □ □

high-density lipoprotein low-density lipoprotein tryglycerides no cholesterol is “good” cholesterol

11. True or False? Bursitis is a chronic condition due to excessive, prolonged pressure or repetitive movement.

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12. Which of the following is commonly used to assess muscular endurance? □ □ □ □ □

push ups pull ups curl ups all of the above none of the above

13. A client measures his heart rate after waking before getting out of bed for three days in a row. The average of these numbers is known as his: □ □ □ □

true resting heart rate sitting heart rate maximum heart rate low range heart rate

14. What is the name of the proprioceptor that is found in the tendons of your muscles and that measures muscle tension? □ □ □ □

ligamental nerve golgi tendon organ neural energy pathway none of the above

15. A specialized nerve cell that innervates muscle fibers is called a(n): □ □ □ □

specificity neuron motor neuron energy neuron innervating neuron

16. Which of the following is an example of an endurance activity? □ □ □ □

kicking a football body building pole vault running a marathon

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17. Which of the following is NOT an example of a complex carbohydrate? □ □ □ □

baked potato whole wheat toast broccoli pasta

18. True or False? Chromium picolinate will increase muscle mass. 19. Which of the following is a basic element of exercise prescription? □ □ □ □ □ □

mode intensity duration frequency all of the above none of the above

20. True or False? Biological, psychological, emotional, cultural and environmental factors all influence exercise participation and adherence. 21. Why is the initial fitness assessment useful? □ □ □ □

It assists in identifying strengths. It assists in identifying weaknesses. It provides a basis for setting realistic fitness goals. All of the above

22. Stretching, twisting and most calisthenics activities are examples of which of the following? □ □ □ □

locomotor skills nonlocomotor skills gross motor skills fine motor skills

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23. What kinds of skills are used to move the body from one location to another, as in running and jumping, for example? □ □ □ □

gross motor skills locomotor skills fine motor skills nonlocomotor skills

24. The wrist is an example of what kind of joint? □ □ □ □

hinge ball and socket pivot biaxial

25. True or False? Exercise addiction is a real condition and must be properly treated by professional psychological counselors.

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Answers 1. Contractility 2. Valsalva maneuver 3. Sagittal 4. Hinge – This type of joint allows extension and retraction of the limb. 5. Abduction – Abduction moves away from the midline of the body, while adduction moves toward the midline. 6. Sternal – There are three normal curves of the spine: cervical, thoracic and lumbar. 7. False – Dietary and energy supplements can create nutritional imbalances leading to health problems and should NOT be recommended by personal trainers. 8. Moderate intensity, long duration aerobic activity with moderate resistance training – This exercise prescription has proven most effective for weight loss as it burns sufficient calories and helps to tone the body at the same time. 9. 50% – Nearly half of all clients lose motivation and will drop out of a regular exercise program after the first year. 10. High-density lipoprotein – Often found in polyunsaturated fats, high-density lipoprotein (HDL) is the “good” kind of cholesterol. 11. True 12. All of the above – Pushups, pull ups and curl ups are all commonly used assessments for measuring muscular endurance. 13. True resting heart rate – The true resting heart rate is taken after a period of complete rest, preferably at the same time, for at least three days in a row. 14. Golgi tendon organ 15. Motor neuron 16. Running a marathon – The other activities listed (kicking a football, bodybuilding and pole vault) are examples of power or speed activities. 17. Broccoli – Broccoli is a vegetable; the other examples (whole grains, etc.) are examples of complex carbohydrates. 18. False – Scientific studies have shown that chromium picolinate has no effect on muscle mass.

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19. All of the above – Mode, intensity, duration and frequency are the four basic elements of exercise prescription. 20. True – All of these factors can affect whether or not a person engages in exercise, to what extent and why. 21. All of the above – Initial fitness assessments allow you to accurately identify clients’ strengths and weakness and give you a baseline from which to form goals. 22. Nonlocomotor skills – None of these activities require you to move from one place to another. 23. Locomotor skills – These are the skills necessary to move from one location to another. 24. Biaxial – Biaxial joints allow two types of movement in two directions. 25. True

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Day 8: NASM Quiz 1. Exercises that cause the body to use its stabilization mechanisms and internal balance are typically performed in a controlled, yet unstable environment called a: □ □ □ □

personal training environment stabilization enhancing environment proprioceptively enriched environment productive environment

2. Two exercises that are performed without any rest between them are referred to as a: □ □ □ □

subset superset doubleset none of the above

3. The cumulative neural input received by the mechanoreceptors that sense limb movement and body position is called: □ □ □ □

neuromuscular efficiency proprioception stablilization inert energy

4. What are the five phases of the NASM’s Optimum Performance Training (OPT) system? □ □ □ □

stabilization endurance, strength endurance, hypertrophy, atrophy, deconditioning stabilization endurance, strength endurance, hypertrophy, maximal strength, power stabilization endurance, hypertrophy, minimum strength, maximal strength, power stabilization endurance, hypertrophy, power, flexibility, progression

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5. True or False? Stabilization Endurance Training is only for beginning clients who usually have muscle imbalances and do not have adequate postural control. 6. Which of the following Optimum Performance Training (OPT) stages most commonly utilizes a superset? □ □ □ □

stabilization endurance strength endurance hypertrophy power

7. True or False? Hypertrophy Training focuses on increasing the load placed on muscle tissues in the body. 8. What are the key areas evaluated during the OPT kinetic chain assessment? □ □ □ □ □

posture, strength strength, movement, athletic ability athletic ability movement, flexibility, strength posture, movement, strength, flexibility, athletic ability

9. The OPT method is designed to improve all biomotor abilities and build high levels of: □ □ □ □

neuromuscular efficiency functional strength dynamic flexibility all of the above

10. The crucial element that forms the base of the OPT method’s efficiency is that it: □ □ □ □

separates the different types of training for results in specific areas incorporates/integrates different training types for whole body fitness is unsystematic and unscientific is useful only for athletes

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Please answer questions 11 - 13 using the following client assessment. A 37-year-old woman wishes to begin an exercise program and requests a fitness assessment. She is 5 feet 9 inches tall, weighs 165 pounds and has a waist circumference of 32 inches. Her resting heart rate is 73 beats per minute. Additionally, she smokes an average of 7 cigarettes per day and has a family history of hypertension. She has never engaged in formal exercise training. Her goals are to tone muscles and lose weight. 11. What is her BMI? □ □ □ □

29.8 24.3 33.2 39

12. What should her target heart rate be during exercise if you have prescribed her a 10-30 minute aerobic program to be performed three times weekly? □ □ □ □

75 to 95 130 to 141 100 to 135 95 to 100

13. As her personal trainer, what generic advice would you give this client? □ □ □ □

take a weight loss supplement stop smoking eat more sugar eat more fats

14. What is the daily recommended intake of protein for a healthy adult? □ □ □ □

5 to 10% of total caloric intake 10 to 15% of total caloric intake 15 to 20% of total caloric intake 20 to 25% of total caloric intake

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15. True or False? Approximately 60% of American adults are overweight. 16. The interrelation and combination of the muscular, skeletal and nervous systems is called: □ □ □ □

integrative function progression kinetic chain energetic function

17. Arthrokinematics is: □ □ □ □

movement of the spine movement of the joints movement of the muscles movement of the organs

18. The Davies Test assesses: □ □ □ □

dynamic flexibility and overall body strength overall athletic ability upper extremity stability lower extremity stability

19. The overhead squat test assesses: □ □ □ □

dynamic flexibility and overall body strength overall athletic ability lower extremity stability upper extremity stability

20. The Shark Skill Test assesses: □ □ □ □

overall athletic ability dynamic flexibility and overall body strength upper extremity stability lower extremity stability

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21. What is the OPT repetition range for power adaptations? □ □ □ □

1 to 10 1 to 12 12 to 25 25 to 30

22. What is the OPT repetition range for stabilization adaptations? □ □ □ □

1 to 10 1 to 12 12 to 25 25 to 30

23. Which of the following is an example of a multijoint exercise appropriate for the OPT stabilization level? □ □ □ □

medicine ball pullover standing overhead press bench press squat jump

24. Which of the following is an example of a total body exercise appropriate for the OPT power level? □ □ □ □

single-leg dumbbell curl bench press squat jump standing overhead press

25. True or False? Training volume is always inversely related to training intensity. 26. True or False? Type I muscle fibers are also known as “fast-twitch” fibers.

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27. Which of the following should only be used with well-conditioned clients and athletes? □ □ □ □

biometrics hypertrophy training plyometrics endurance training

28. The step test is designed to measure: □ □ □ □

cardiovascular endurance and overall aerobic capacity overall strength and athletic skill flexibility upper extremity strength

29. True or False? The personal trainer should have every client perform all of the physical tests that are part of the initial assessment. 30. Identify the correct recommended order of the fitness assessment tests: □ □ □ □

Non-fatiguing tests, flexibility tests, agility tests, spring tests, muscular endurance tests, maximal strength and power tests Non-fatiguing tests, agility tests, maximal strength and power tests, sprint tests, muscular endurance tests and flexibility tests Agility tests, flexibility tests, maximal strength and power tests, sprint tests, muscular endurance tests and non-fatiguing tests Agility tests, muscular endurance tests, non-fatiguing tests, maximal strength and power tests, flexibility tests and sprint tests

31. True or False? Frontside mechanics includes the actions of ankle plantarflexion, knee extension and hip extension. 32. True or False? Proper agility training improves the structural integrity of connective tissue, which helps to prevent injury.

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33. Which of the following is NOT one of the three building blocks of training? □ □ □ □

stabilization energy strength power

34. What phase of training enhances prime mover strength and improves the rate of force production at the same time? □ □ □ □

stabilization strength endurance power

35. The period of inadequate oxygen supply when initiating exercise is known as: □ □ □ □

oxygen capacity oxygen deficit oxygen overload none of the above

36. Training only the part of the body that is overloaded is known as the principle of: □ □ □ □

primary loading specificity targeting holding

37. What kind of muscle tissue is best suited for endurance activities? □ □ □ □

fast-twitch slow-twitch long muscles short muscles

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Answers 1. Proprioceptively enriched environment 2. Superset 3. Proprioception 4. Stabilization endurance, strength endurance, hypertrophy, maximal strength, power 5. False – Stabilization Endurance Training is important for all clients, as it prepares them for the higher demands of training in the later stages. 6. Strength endurance – A superset is usually composed of two different types of exercise and is designed to increase both strength and endurance. 7. False – Hypertrophy Training focuses on increasing volume while minimizing rest periods to force cellular changes that promote muscle increase. Maximal Strength Training focuses on load increase. 8. Posture, movement, strength, flexibility, athletic ability 9. All of the above 10. Incorporates/integrates different types of training for whole body fitness 11. 24.3 – BMI is calculated using the following formula: (weight in pounds / height in inches squared) x 703. (165 / 4761) x 703 = 24.3 12. 130 – 141 – Maximum heart rate is calculated using the formula 220 – age, which in this case is 183. For aerobic exercise, you want to reach about 75% (0.75) of that, which is within the range 130 to 141. 13. Stop smoking – Taking a non-prescribed weight loss supplement and eating more fats and sugars are all activities to be avoided, not recommended. 14. 10 to 15% of total caloric intake 15. True 16. Kinetic chain 17. Movement of the joints 18. Upper extremity stability 19. Dynamic flexibility and overall body strength 20. Overall athletic ability 21. 1 to 10 – Power adaptations are focused on building strength so doing too many repetitions could result in overworking those muscles.

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22. 12 to 25 – Stabilization adaptations are focused on building stability and flexibility and create a base for other exercises, so more repetitions are more effective. 23. Standing overhead press – The medicine ball pullover and bench press are designed to help build strength and endurance and are not for stabilization. 24. Squat jump – This exercise utilizes the entire body’s muscle system and requires a certain amount of strength and stability, making it useful for power adaptations. 25. True 26. False – Type II muscle fibers are also known as “fast-twitch” fibers. 27. Plyometrics – These exercises use explosive movements and are designed to generate muscular power. If a client is not well-conditioned and very physically fit, he/she could be injured from these kinds of exercises. 28. Cardiovascular endurance and overall aerobic capacity 29. False – Some clients may have a pre-existing condition that would prohibit them from performing certain physical tests, and some clients with poor physical fitness levels may become embarrassed or discouraged at performing certain tests. 30. Non-fatiguing tests, agility tests, maximal strength and power tests, sprint tests, muscular endurance tests and flexibility tests 31. False – Backside mechanics includes the actions of ankle plantarflexion, knee extension and hip extension. 32. True 33. Energy – The three building blocks of training are stabilization, strength and power. 34. Power 35. Oxygen deficit – Whenever you are not receiving adequate oxygen, there is a deficit. 36. Specificity – Training only those areas that are overloaded indicates that you are targeting that specific area to receive maximum benefit. 37. Slow-twitch – These muscle tissues are better suited to endurance, while fasttwitch muscle tissues are better suited to power development.

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Day 8 NSCA Quiz 1. Which of the points along the motivation continuum defined by the selfdetermination theory would indicate a client who engages in behavior to avoid punishment, not for personal satisfaction? □ □ □ □ □

integrated regulation introjected regulation identified regulation external regulation amotivation

2. Which of the following client statements is characteristic of an outcome goal? □ □ □ □

I want to lose 15 pounds. I want to do my best to stop drinking soda. I want to be able to run faster than my friend. I want to do 20 pushups a minute.

3. True or False? Exercise has anxiety-reducing and anti-depressive benefits. 4. Which of the following is one of the cognitive benefits of exercise? □ □ □ □

improved neurotransmitter function increase in genetic variations decreased oxygen supply to the brain decreased memory function

5. Offering free sessions to clients who achieve their goals within a predetermined amount of time is an example of which type of motivational technique? □ □ □ □

positive reinforcement intrinsic motivation achievement motivation negative reinforcement

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6. A 38-year-old man wishes to reduce his risk of developing metabolic syndrome. Which of the following changes will effectively help him? □ □ □ □

improved body composition increased alcohol intake higher low density lipoprotein levels increased insulin resistance

7. A client consumed 450 grams of carbohydrates, 100 grams of protein and 40 grams of fat in one day. What is this client’s total caloric intake for the day? □ □ □ □

5000 kcals 2560 kcals 2345 kcals 4500 kcals

8. How often should seniors engage in resistance training? □ □ □ □

2 to 3 nonconsecutive days per week 4 to 5 days per week every day of the week seniors should not engage in resistance training

9. What is the acceptable exercise intensity range for senior adults? □ □ □ □

30 to 40% of maximum heart rate 50 to 60% of maximum heart rate 60 to 90% of maximum heart rate 90 to 100% of maximum heart rate

10. True or False? Maximum heart rate decreases as people age. 11. The primary characteristic of android obesity is: □ □

greater amounts of body fat in the trunk and abdominal areas greater amounts of body fat in the hip and thigh areas

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12. The primary characteristic of gynoid obesity: □ □

greater amounts of body fat in the trunk and abdominal areas greater amounts of body fat in the hip and thigh areas

13. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of including regular exercise in a weight loss program? □ □ □ □

decreased insulin resistance decreased dietary compliance improved mood increased energy expenditure

14. True or False? It is recommended that personal trainers develop a diet plan for obese or overweight clients. 15. In order to facilitate weight loss of 1 to 2 pounds per week, experts recommend a diet designed to create a deficit of: □ □ □ □

100 to 500 calories per day 500 to 1000 calories per day 1000 to 1500 calories per day 1500 to 2000 calories per day

16. Which of the following is an example of moderate amounts of physical activity? □ □ □ □

raking leaves for 30 minutes playing volleyball for 45 minutes to an hour jumping rope for 15 minutes all of the above

17. A person with extreme obesity (class III) would have a body mass index that is: □ □ □ □

less than 25.0 25.1 to 30.0 30.1 to 39.9 greater than 40.0

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18. One of your clients has chronic low back pain resulting from excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following should be targeted for flexibility exercises? □ □ □ □

hamstrings hip adductors gluteals hip flexors

19. What is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)? □ □ □ □

the rate at which the body breaks down food an individual’s minimum caloric requirement while at rest a set of constructive metabolic processes the measurement of a person’s body fat

20. A client who does 12 repetitions with 100 pounds would have a 1RM of: □ □ □ □

120 140 156 190

21. Which of the following is a determinant of VO2 max? □ □ □ □

metabolism neural efficiency cardiac output training intensity

22. Which of the following should be avoided when designing resistance training programs for children? □ □ □ □ □

squatting exercises overhead lifting activities using free weights for resistance lifting loads greater than 10RM all of the above

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23. How many calories are in a food that contains 20 grams of carbohydrates, 5 grams of proteins and 10 grams of fat? □ □ □ □

100 caloires 190 calories 250 calories 300 calories

24. True or False? You have to stop exercising completely whenever you are injured. 25. What type of exercise is best for people with arthritis? □ □ □ □ □

range of motion strengthening endurance all of the above none of the above

26. People with which of the following conditions should NOT exercise? □ □ □ □ □

arthritis asthma diabetes all of the above none of the above

27. When should the personal trainer request medical assistance for a client who is having an asthma attack? □ □ □ □

immediately if symptoms persist for more than 30 minutes if symptoms persist for more than 1 hour never

28. True or False? Diabetes is purely a genetic disorder and cannot be benefited by exercise.

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29. Which of the following fitness activities should you NOT recommend for a client with diabetes? □ □ □ □

swimming lifting heavy weights walking dancing

30. True or False? People with hypertension should not engage in cardiovascular/aerobic exercise. 31. True or False? People who suffer from autoimmune disorders cannot exercise. 32. In relation to other types of cells, what is the size of muscle fibers? □ □ □

They are smaller. They are larger. They are the same size.

33. In which of the following exercises can the trainer NOT assess a client’s 1RM? □ □ □ □

biceps curl knee extension seated calf raise shoulder press

34. Which of the following training goals requires the longest recovery period between sets? □ □ □ □

muscular endurance muscular hypertrophy muscular atrophy muscular strength and power

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35. Exercise causes increases in which system’s activity? □ □ □ □

digestive endocrine parasympathetic sympathetic

36. Which of the following exercises are recommended to increase middle trapezius strength? □ □ □ □

lat pulldown vertical chest press back squat flat dumbbell fly

37. Which of the following do NOT contribute to venous return? □ □ □ □

the respiratory pump the muscle pump vasoconstriction venoconstriction

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Answers 1. External regulation – The client has not yet begun to be motivated by internal reasons. 2. I want to be able to run faster than my friend – Outcome goals are usually unattainable as they relate to comparisons among individuals that cannot be accurately measured. 3. True 4. Improved neurotransmitter function – Neither increases in genetic variations or decreased amounts of oxygen are a cognitive benefit of exercise. 5. Positive reinforcement – This kind of motivation gives something to the client (i.e., a free session) to reinforce behavior. 6. Improved body composition – The other three answers are negative side effects of poor health and body composition. 7. 2560 kcals – Caloric intake is based on 4 calories per 1 gram of protein, 4 calories per 1 gram of carbohydrates and 9 calories per 1 gram of fat. Thus, 450 x 4 = 1800. 100 x 4 = 400. 40 x 9 = 360. 1800 + 400 + 360 = 2560. 8. 2 to 3 nonconsecutive days per week 9. 60 to 90% of maximum heart rate 10. True 11. Greater amounts of body fat in the trunk and abdominal areas 12. Greater amounts of body fat in the hip and thigh areas 13. Decreases dietary compliance – Normally, engaging in a regular exercise program assists individuals in complying with physician or dietician recommended dietary plans. 14. False – Obese and overweight clients generally need very specific dietary adjustments to achieve a caloric deficit that will result in weight loss. Personal trainers should refer obese and overweight clients to a dietician who can offer them the nutritional support and guidance necessary to maintain optimal health throughout the weight loss process. 15. 500 to 1000 calories per day – A smaller caloric deficit (100 to 500 calories) is not sufficient for weight loss and a greater caloric deficit (1000 to 1500 calories) can lead to losing too much weight too quickly and can be dangerous.

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16. All of the above 17. Greater than 40.0 18. Hip flexors – Targeting these muscles will help to realign the pelvis and reduce back pain. 19. An individual’s caloric requirements while at rest 20. 140 – 1RM = [(repetitions / 30) + 1] x weight. In this case, [(12/30) +1] x 100 = 140. 21. Cardiac output 22. Lifting loads greater than 10RM – This causes too much strain on children’s growing bodies and could lead to serious injury. 23. 190 calories – Total calories are calculated by 4 calories per 1 gram of carbohydrate or protein and 9 calories per 1 gram of fat. 20 x 4 = 80. 5 x 4 = 20. 9 x 10 = 90. 80 + 20 + 90 = 190 calories. 24. False – Depending on the severity and location of the injury, exercise can still be performed under medical or physician supervision. 25. All of the above 26. None of the above – Exercise is recommended as part of a healthy routine for people with asthma, arthritis and diabetes and can help them manage their medical condition. 27. If symptoms persist for more than 30 minutes – However, best judgment should always be utilized in such situations and could necessitate calling for professional medical help sooner. 28. False – There are many contributing factors to the development of diabetes. Regular exercise can help to manage diabetes and even play a role in reducing the risk of developing the disorder. 29. Lifting heavy weights – Diabetics already have excessive strain on their blood vessels and adding extra strain by lifting heavy weights could cause serious injury or even death. 30. False – Cardiovascular/aerobic exercise is an important part of strengthening the cardiovascular system and lowering blood pressure. It is appropriate for people with hypertension. 31. False – People with autoimmune disorders are encouraged to exercise to assist in pain relief and to maintain mobility and range of motion. However, they should receive medical clearance from a physician first.

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32. They are larger – Muscle fibers are much larger than other types of cells and can span the entire muscle, up to 12 inches. 33. Shoulder press – The shoulder press is not an adequate measure of strength. 34. Muscular strength and power – Due to the strain the muscles must undergo to build strength and power, a longer recovery time is necessary to avoid overtraining or injury. 35. Sympathetic 36. Lat pulldown – This exercise will effectively work to strengthen the middle trapezius. 37. Vasoconstriction

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Day 8 NCSF Quiz 1. How are the muscles contracted during the upward movement of a squat? □ □ □ □

eccentrically concentrically isometrically isokinetically

2. A client who regularly engages in moderate intensity cardiovascular endurance training will experience which of the following physical adaptations within their trained muscle tissue? □ □ □ □

increase in aerobic enzyme concentration increase in number of capillaries increase in number of mitochondria all of the above

3. During the first few weeks of a resistance training program, a client’s initial strength gains are primarily due to: □ □ □ □

muscle changes from Type 1 fibers to Type II fibers increases in the number of muscle fibers neural adaptations enzyme concentrations

4. During the health status portion of an initial client consultation, you discover the client is currently taking medication for hypertension. What is the BEST next step for the personal trainer? □ □ □ □

refer the client to his/her physician to receive medical clearance for exercise before beginning check the client’s blood pressure, and if it is within normal limits, allow him/her to start exercising have the client perform an aerobic level fitness test and if he/she passes, allow him/her to start exercising limit the client’s exercises to those that have a limited blood pressure response

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5. After measuring your client’s body composition, you estimate her body fat to be 25%. If she currently weighs 175 pounds, what is her predicted total fat mass? □ □ □ □

25 pounds 32 pounds 44 pounds 49 pounds

6. During supine abdominal exercises, what action should come before the contraction of the rectus abdominis? □ □ □ □

anterior pelvic tilt posterior pelvic tilt inferior pelvic tilt neutral pelvic tilt

7. During which of the following movements’ concentric phase does scapular retraction occur? □ □ □ □

bench press upright row shoulder press seated cable row

8. During a 1RM bench press, what is the primary energy source being used? □ □ □ □

stored adipose tissue ATP stored in the muscle aerobic ATP production glycolysis

9. Excessive weight loss can cause which of the following adverse health effects? □ □ □ □

depression infertility impaired temperature regulation all of the above

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10. Your client is taking a prescription beta-blocker. How would this affect the cardiovascular exercise program? □ □ □ □ □

The client’s blood pressure would increase during exercise. The client’s maximum heart rate would increase, meaning he/she can train at a higher intensity. The client would experience a reduction in heart rate, a decrease in vigor of myocardial contractions and would have a lower cardiac output. The client would experience an increase in heart rate and vigor of output. The client would experience an increase in heart rate and vigor of myocardial contractions, allowing him/her to reach higher intensities during training.

Please answer questions 11 – 13 with the following information. A new male client’s 3-day dietary log indicates that he is insufficient in fiber intake, vitamin C intake and protein intake and currently consumes 4 to 5 highcalorie, sugary snacks per day. In addition, he consumes 3 to 4 alcoholic beverages and 2 to 3 “energy drinks” daily. 11. Which of the following would you NOT suggest for this client? □ □ □ □

that he cut back on fats and sugars that he increase his vitamin C intake that he drink more “energy drinks” that he eat more vegetables

12. What food would you suggest he eat to increase his fiber intake? □ □ □ □

salmon low-fat cheese tomatoes whole grain bread

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13. Which of the following foods would help him increase his protein intake? □ □ □ □

broccoli crackers beans corn tortillas

14. Which food would you suggest to help him increase his vitamin C intake? □ □ □ □

carrots peas orange juice flank steak

15. Strength training that consists of performing a predetermined number of a single set of repetitions until performance failure occurs is known as: □ □ □ □

circuit training multi-set pre-exhaustion high intensity training

16. A new 42-year-old female client who was previously sedentary, yet is healthy, wants to lose 5 pounds and increase muscle tone. What is the correct resistance training system to prescribe? □ □ □ □

pyramid system circuit training system exhaustion system assisted training system

17. How should the muscles of the lower back be contracted while performing the Bent-Over Row exercise? □ □ □ □

isometrically isolaterally dynamically eccentrically

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18. Lower back pain caused by pelvic position can be affected by range of motion deficiencies in which of the following muscles? □ □ □ □

biceps femoris psoas major semitendinosus all of the above

19. You are fitting a client for a stability ball for activities in a seated position. Which of the following positions is correct? □ □ □ □

the hips and knees should maintain 90 degrees of flexion the hips should be positioned at the center of the ball the feet should be together the ankles should be dorsi flexed

20. The fast-moving body segment of a ballistic movement is decelerated throughout the recovery phase by which of the following? □ □ □ □

concentric contraction of the antagonist concentric contraction of the agonist eccentric contraction of the antagonist eccentric contraction of the agonist

21. Identify the NCSF-recommended sequence for engaging a prospective client in a regular exercise program. □ □ □ □

health history questionnaire, informed consent, exercise testing, screening screening, exercise testing, informed consent, health history, questionnaire informed consent, health history questionnaire, screening, exercise testing exercise testing, health history questionnaire, screening, informed consent

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22. What percentage of a normal, apparently healthy adult’s diet should consist of fats? □ □ □ □

Less than 30% 30 to 40% 40 to 50% 50 to 60%

23. What percentage of a normal, apparently healthy adult’s diet should consist of carbohydrates? □ □ □ □

35 to 40% 55 to 60% 60 to 65% 45 to 50%

24. Why is aerobic exercise an important part of weight control exercise programs? □ □ □ □

aerobic metabolism only uses fat a negative caloric balance is created by caloric expenditure fat cell numbers can be reduced all of the above

25. Variations in the training program that occur over a planned period of time in a systematic process are referred to as: □ □ □ □

overload frequency multi-set periodization

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Answers 1. Concentrically 2. All of the above – Increase in aerobic enzyme concentration, number of capillaries and number of mitochondria are all physical adaptations that will occur with this kind of training. 3. Neural adaptations – During the first few weeks, the exercises are engaging the neurons and muscles in learning new movements. 4. Refer the client to his/her physician to receive medical clearance for exercise before beginning – This is the safest, most prudent course since the client has hypertension. 5. 44 pounds – Total fat mass = weight (175) times body fat (25% or 0.25) = 43.75 pounds (round up). 6. Posterior pelvic tilt 7. Seated cable row 8. ATP stored in the muscle 9. All of the above – Depression, infertility and impaired temperature regulation are all possible adverse health effects related to excessive weight loss. 10. The client would experience a reduction in heart rate, a decrease in vigor of myocardial contractions and would have a lower cardiac output 11. That he drink more “energy drinks” – These beverages are often unsafe, causing sugar crashes and overloading the body with more B vitamins than it needs. 12. Whole grain bread – Whole grains are an excellent source of fiber. 13. Beans – Beans are a very good source of healthy protein. 14. Orange juice – Oranges are high in vitamin C. 15. High intensity training 16. Circuit training system – Circuit training is the best option among these systems as it is the most useful for overall physical fitness and minor weight loss. 17. Isometrically 18. All of the above – The biceps femoris, psoas major and semitendinosus all affect pelvic tilt, and ROM deficiencies can assist to cause lower back pain.

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19. The hips and knees should maintain 90 degrees of flexion – This will ensure the ball is fitted correctly and that the exercises performed using the ball will be beneficial and correctly performed. 20. Eccentric contraction of the antagonist 21. Informed consent, health history questionnaire, screening, exercise testing 22. Less than 30% – Fats should not be more than 30% of a person’s diet. 23. 55 to 60% – Carbohydrates should make up the greater half of a person’s diet. 24. A negative caloric balance is created by caloric expenditure – Aerobic exercise can assist in burning more calories and thus, assist in losing and controlling weight. 25. Periodization

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Day 8 NESTA Quiz 1. What is the primary substance that is converted from food to be used by the body’s cells for energy? □ □ □ □

ADP ATP glucose amino acid

2. Shrugs are typically performed to enhance or develop which muscle? □ □ □ □

upper trapezius middle trapezius lower trapezius all of the above

3. Performing an incline-bench chest press and then performing a barbell dead lift with no rest between them is an example of what kind of training? □ □ □ □

supersetting pyramid setting compound setting eccentric training

4. Which of the following is a possible consequence of the accumulation of lactate in the muscles? □ □ □ □

fatigue protein degradation muscle anabolism increased caloric burn

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5. Use the Karvonen equation to determine the target heart rate at a 60% intensity level for a 37-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 61 beats per minute. □ □ □ □

121 134 137 144

6. Which energy source does light aerobic activity primarily utilize? □ □ □ □

amino acids fatty acids glucose DNA

7. During exercise, the maximum volume of oxygen consumed per unit of time is called the: □ □ □ □

residual volume lactate threshold aerobic threshold aerobic capacity

8. The main difference between power and maximum strength is: □ □ □ □

time force load range of motion

9. Increases in mobility lead to: □ □ □ □

increases in resistance strength decreases in resistance strength increases in stability decreases in stability

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10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of cardiovascular training? □ □ □ □

decreased blood pressure increased ATP, CP and glycogen stores decreased number of mitochondria increased heart rate variability and oxygen utilization

11. The central concept of program design is to obtain tissue adaptations and achieve client goals through varying the appropriate ____________ and allowing for sufficient rest or recovery. □ □ □ □

intensity frequency weight order

12. Which of the four primary movements of the scapula are considered frontal plane movements? □ □ □ □

depression and retraction depression and elevation retraction and elevation adduction and abduction

13. During the shoulder extension phase of an over-arm throw, what are the prime movers, or agonists? □ □ □ □

triceps deltoids brachioradialis latissimus dorsi

14. A period of training, or training stage, within the entire training year that lasts a few weeks is known as a: □ □ □ □

microcycle macrocycle mesocycle level

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15. Which of the following is another name for an entire training year? □ □ □ □

macrocycle mesocycle program none of the above

16. Which of the following muscles functions to abduct the hip, originating at the ilium and inserting at the femur? □ □ □ □

sartorius gluteus medius semitendinosus adductor group

17. All of the following are common anti-hypertensive agents EXCEPT: □ □ □ □

antihistamines beta-blockers diuretics ACE inhibitors

18. While engaging in cardiovascular training, a client begins to inhale less through his/her nose, opening the mouth more visibly. In addition, he/she cannot complete a spoken sentence without pausing. What is happening internally to the client, in terms of energy production? □ □ □ □

The aerobic threshold has been crossed. Energy production is at capacity due to overexertion. Energy production has moved from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism. Energy production has moved anaerobic to aerobic metabolism.

19. Which of the following refers to the principle that states that the rate of change in momentum of a body and its direction are proportional to the force causing it? □ □ □ □

drag acceleration impulse Newton’s Second Law

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20. What type of force is a person’s own body weight considered? □ □ □ □

external force internal force eccentric force concentric force

21. True or False? Warm-up and cool-down periods are not important for wellconditioned clients or athletes. 22. Cooling-down after an exercise session is important because: □ □ □ □

It helps to gradually decrease body temperature. It helps decrease the heart rate toward homeostasis. It induces muscle soreness. It can increase work capacity and force production.

23. The goal of eccentric muscular actions on joint movement is: □ □ □ □

atrophy stabilization acceleration negative acceleration

24. Which of the following muscles is the primary mover of glenohumeral flexion with the forearm in supination? □ □ □ □

biceps brachii brachialis anterior deltoid middle deltoid

25. True or False? A myocardial infarction is commonly known as a heart attack.

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Answers 1. Glucose 2. All of the above – Shrugs will assist to enhance or develop all of the trapezius muscles. 3. Supersetting – Doing two exercises, one right after another, with no break is known as supersetting. 4. Fatigue – Normal amounts of lactate in the muscles are useful for muscle production, but an accumulation of lactate can cause muscle fatigue. 5. 134 – Maximum heart rate = 183. MHR (183) – RHR (61) = HRH (122). 122 x 0.6 (60% intensity) = 73.2. 73.2 + RHR (61) = 134.2 (round to 134). 6. Glucose – Aerobic activity utilizes oxygen to burn glucose and fat for energy. 7. Aerobic capacity – Also known as VO2max, this is how much oxygen your body can consume during exercise. 8. Time – Strength refers to how much force or load one can move, and power refers to how fast one can move that force or load. Thus, time is the primary difference. 9. Increases in stability – Mobility and stability co-exist so if one experiences an increase, the other will naturally follow. 10. Decreased number of mitochondria – Mitochondria are the “power houses” of the cells, and cardiovascular exercise will strengthen and multiply the number of mitochondria. 11. Intensity – If the muscles are not stressed and then given adequate time to rest, they will not strengthen or grow. 12. Depression and elevation 13. Latissimus dorsi 14. Mesocycle 15. Macrocycle 16. Gluteus medius 17. Antihistamines – These medications are primarily used to treat allergies, not hypertension. 18. The aerobic threshold has been crossed – At this point, the body is training at a higher intensity and more stress is being placed on the cardiovascular system. 213 Copyright © 2009 - 2010, Starting-a-Personal-Training-Business.com. All rights reserved.

19. Newton’s Second Law 20. Concentric force – When moving weight, even body weight, amounts that we can easily control with the least amount of force are considered concentric. 21. False – Warm-up and cool-down periods are important for ALL people engaging in exercise in order to adequately prepare the body for exercise without injury and to allow the body to return to its normal state. 22. It helps decrease the heart rate toward homeostasis 23. Negative acceleration – Eccentric movements lengthen muscles, as when kicking. 24. Anterior deltoid 25. True

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Day 9: The Final Exam Step 1: Review Preparation You should have taken all 20 quizzes by this point. If you have not passed them all, go back and study some more until you can consistently pass each one. Your scores will improve as you memorize some of the questions. This is a good thing. You will likely see many familiar questions on your "real" certification exam. Once you are ready, you can take our 61 question final exam below. It contains new questions from all the topics that we have covered so far. The test is NOT timed, but you should be able to complete it in 90 minutes. Ready? Good luck!

Part 1: Anatomy and Physiology 1. Nerves, ganglia and receptors are part of which body system? □ □ □ □ □

central nervous system peripheral nervous system autonomic nervous system voluntary nervous system none of the above

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2. The condition in which the hemoglobin concentration in the blood is below a defined level, resulting in a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells is known as: □ □ □ □

sickle cellulosis diabetes epicondyle anemia

3. Microglia are part of the: □ □ □ □

skeletal system central nervous system cardiorespiratory system cardiovascular system

4. Which muscles contribute to good posture? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

erector spinae rhomboids abdominis trapezius

5. ATP is an acronym for which of the following terms? □ □ □ □

adrenotrypsis adenosine triphosphate adrenosine triphosphate adrenosine diphosphate

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Question 6: Which arrow is pointing to the radius bone? Question 7: Which arrow is pointing to the ulna bone?

Note: A higher resolution, color image is available at http://www.starting-a-personal-training-business.com/z1a2wmx4.html

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8. Which muscles are responsible for keeping the spine erect? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

erector spinae rhomboids abdominis trapezius

9. True or False? Cardiac output is the amount of blood exiting the left ventricle with each heartbeat. 10. The left lung ________ compared to the right lung. □ □ □ □ □

has greater capacity is longer is wider all of the above none of the above

11. Fatty acid oxidation produces _____ amounts of ATP. □ high □ low □ no 12. True or False? The cardiovascular system includes the heart, lungs, blood and blood vessels. 13. Which of the following is the delivery tool for the body's tissues? □ □ □ □

lymph hormones blood creatine

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Question 14: Identify the arrow pointing to the Adductors.

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Question 15: Identify the arrow pointing to the Rhomboids. Question 16: Identify the arrow pointing to Trapezius.

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17. Muscle activity that shortens the muscle is referred to as: □ □ □ □

eccentric concentric isometric procentric

18. The hamstrings and gluteus maximus perform which movement? □ □ □ □

hip extension hip rotation hip adduction hip abduction

Part 2: Client Assessment 19. A female client is trying to reduce her body fat from 25% to 20%. She weighs 165 pounds and her BMI score is 26. What is her target weight? □ □ □ □

137 148 155 160

20. The Karvonen formula calculates target _____________. □ □ □ □

heart rate body fat resistance load exercise frequency

21. Which is the most convenient method for measuring body fat? □ □ □ □

calipers hydrostatic weighing BMI weighing bioelectrical impedance

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22. An adult client with a BMI of 26 would be considered: □ □ □ □

underweight normal overweight obese

23. The average resting heart rate of a healthy adult in beats per minute is: □ □ □ □

50 to 70 70 to 80 80 to 90 90 to 100

24. The form best suited to identifying clients who require medical attention before beginning an exercise program is: □ □ □ □

informed consent Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire medical release liability waiver

25. The Borg scale measures a client's: □ □ □ □

fitness level exertion level glucose level flexibility

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Part 3: Program Design 26. You observe your client's knees pointing inward while standing. What stretch is best suited to this condition? □ □ □ □

gluteus stretch gastrocnemius stretch standing adductor hamstring release

27. If your client wants to build muscle, how much rest time do you allow between sets? □ □ □ □ □

less than 30 seconds 30 to 60 seconds 60 to 90 seconds 90 to 120 seconds more than 120 seconds

28. What is the maximum heart rate of a 40-year-old male with BMI of 25 and resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute? □ □ □ □ □

150 175 180 195 none of the above

29. Larger exercise balls give a _________ workout. □ more intense □ less intense □ no difference, size depends on size of client

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30. Which statements about cross training are true? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □ □

Cross training improves overall fitness levels. Cross training can help reduce injury. Cross training can help reduce boredom. All of these statements are true. None of these statements are true.

31. Your new client only has time for a 45-minute workout. He/she has been previously sedentary. What program is best for him/her? □ 10 minutes of warm up, 10 minutes at 60-70% THR, 10 minutes at 7080% THR, 10 minutes at 80-85% THR, 5-minute cool down □ 5 minutes of warm up, 30 minutes of weight training, 5-minute cool down □ 10 minutes of warm up, 30 minutes at 70-80% THR, 5-minute cool down □ 5 minutes of warm up, 30 minutes of brisk walking at 40-50% THR, 5-minute cool down 32. During the initial phase of working with an unconditioned client, workout frequency should be ____ times per week. □ □ □ □

1 3 5 7

33. As your client moves into the improvement conditioning phase, ________ of workouts should increase. (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □

duration frequency intensity modality

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Part 4: Exercise Technique 34. Performing two exercises in sequence with no rest time in between is called: □ □ □ □

proprioception interval training super setting functional overload

35. Which is NOT a normal cardiorespiratory adaptation? □ □ □ □

decreased resting heart rate increased cardiac muscle strength decreased stroke volume none of the above

36. Which of the following terms refers to movement away from the sagittal plane? □ □ □ □

supination flexion adduction abduction

37. Attempting to lift an immoveable object is an example of what kind of movement? □ □ □ □

isometric eccentric procentric concentric

38. When performing lunges, the main joint action is: □ □ □ □

hip extension hip flexion hip abduction hip adduction

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39. Which of the following is a benefit of cool down? (choose ALL correct answers): □ aids in the dissipation of waste products, including lactic acid □ reduces the potential for DOMS □ reduces the chances of dizziness or fainting caused by the pooling of venous blood at the extremities □ reduces the level of adrenaline in the blood □ all of the above 40. You get _______ range of motion with barbells compared to dumbbells. □ increased □ decreased □ the same 41. Turning toward the midline of the body is known as: □ □ □ □

lateral rotation medial rotation intrarotation interrotation

42. What begins when one foot touches the ground and ends when the same foot touches the ground again? □ □ □ □

stride rotation repetition gait

43. The point where loss of control of the center of gravity occurs is known as the: □ □ □ □

limit of stability instability threshold controlled instability maximal stability

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44. True or False? Passive joint stabilization is the body's ability to stabilize joints during movement. Part 5: Safety, Legal and Business Issues 45. The ability of the body to cool itself is _________ with humidity. □ □ □ □

increased decreased disabled unchanged

46. True or False? Gentle bouncing is acceptable when stretching. 47. What is the appropriate course of action if a client vomits repeatedly during your training session? □ □ □ □

seek immediate medical assistance stop the session and send the client home to rest take a short minute break and then continue training push through it

48. According to the ABC's of CPR, the “A” stands for: □ □ □ □

ask questions airway arteries none of the above

49. True or False? Asthma can be aggravated by training in cold weather. 50. Degenerative joint disease is another name for: □ □ □ □

arthritis osteoarthritis osteoporosis cavinitis

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51. How often should exercise equipment be inspected? □ □ □ □

every day every week every month quarterly

52. True or False? Using knee wraps and supports will help reduce injury. 53. Hyponatremia is caused by: □ □ □ □

intense exercise after a prolonged period of detraining micro tears in muscle fibers decrease in motor neuron efficiency drinking too much water

Part 6: +utrition 54. Which of the following are food groups according to the USDA food pyramid? (choose ALL correct answers): □ □ □ □ □ □ □

fats grains milk meat and beans extras dairy oils

55. Physically active women are at higher risk for which condition? □ □ □ □

angina bulimia nervosa iron deficiency stroke

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56. Which of the following will create a calorie deficit? □ □ □ □

increasing activity reducing calories consumed decreasing activity and increasing consumption increasing activity and reducing consumption

57. Women require an average of _____ calories per day. □ □ □ □

1500 1800 2100 2400

58. You have a meal consisting of 4 grams of fat, 10 grams of carbohydrates and 3 grams of protein. How many calories did you consume? □ □ □ □ □

88 94 102 118 none of the above

Part 7: Training Special Populations 59. Decreased ability of the lungs to expand is known as: □ □ □ □

emphysema lung cancer restrictive lung disease obstructive lung disease

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60. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding losing weight during pregnancy? □ Weight loss during pregnancy can be toxic to the fetus. □ Weight loss during pregnancy deprives the fetus of food. □ Weight loss during pregnancy can be done safely under the supervision of a doctor. □ None of the above statements are true. 61. Older populations are more likely to experience which muscle condition? □ □ □ □

hypertrophy atrophy maximothy dystrophy

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Day 9: Final Exam Answers

Part 1: Anatomy and Physiology 1. Peripheral nervous system 2. Anemia – This condition is caused by a deficiency in iron, which assists in bonding oxygen to the blood. 3. Central nervous system – Microglia are the primary active immune defense system in the central nervous system. 4. All of the muscles listed contribute to good posture. 5. Adenosine triphosphate – ATP is the primary source of usable energy and energy storage in the body. 6. Arrow 6 7. Arrow 8 8. Erector spinae – While the other muscles listed assist in maintaining good posture, only erector spinae keeps the spine erect. 9. False – The amount of blood exiting the left ventricle with each heartbeat is known as ventricular ejection. Cardiac output is the volume of blood being pumped out of the heart per minute. 10. None of the above – In order to leave sufficient room for the heart, the left lung is smaller and has less capacity than the right lung. 11. High – Large amounts of energy can be stored in fat, and when oxidized this energy becomes usable. 12. False – The lungs are part of the cardiorespiratory system. 13. Blood – Blood is the body’s means of delivering oxygen, nutrients and antibodies to different parts of the body. 14. Arrow 9 15. Arrow 11 16. Arrow 14 17. Concentric 18. Hip extension

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Part 2: Client Assessment 19. 155 pounds – To calculate, first determine the client’s current lean body weight (165 – weight of fat). Weight of fat = 165 x 0.25 = 41.25 So, 165 – 41.25 = 123.75 Then, determine the goal percentage of lean body weight (1 – 0.2 = 0.8). Finally, divide the lean body weight by the goal percentage of lean body weight (123.75 / 0.8 = 154.68 (round to 155). 20. Heart rate 21. Calipers – Note, however, that this is not the most accurate measurement of body fat, and accuracy depends largely on the type of caliper and the skill of the trainer. 22. Overweight – Standard BMI range for overweight individuals is 25 to 29.9. 23. 70 to 80 beats per minute 24. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) – This form is best because it assesses the client’s current level of physical activity and identifies any pre-existing or possible medical conditions that could interfere with normal training. 25. Exertion level

Part 3: Program Design 26. Standing adductor – Toes pointing inward can be brought back to a more normal position using this exercise. 27. 30 to 60 seconds – Building muscle requires adequate rest between sets, and if the client wishes to build maximal strength, more than 120 seconds of rest should be allowed. 28. 180 – MHR = 220 – age. The rest of the information is unnecessary for this calculation. 29. Less intense – The body does not have to work as hard to perform the same exercises with a larger ball as compared to a smaller ball. 30. All of these statements are true.

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31. 10 minutes of warm up, 30 minutes at 70-80% THR, 5-minute cool down – Having been previously sedentary, the client needs a longer warm up time but can exercise at a normal level of intensity. 32. 3 times per week – This is the recommended frequency to avoid injury and over-training. 33. Duration, frequency and intensity – At this stage only modality should not increase.

Part 4: Exercise Technique 34. Super setting 35. Decreased stroke volume – Because the heart is working more efficiently, as evidenced by a decreased resting heart rate and increased cardiac muscle strength, stroke volume should increase. 36. Abduction – Abduction is movement away from the body, while adduction is movement toward the body. 37. Isometric – Isometric movement is defined as the contraction of a muscle against an immovable force. 38. Hip extension 39. All of the above – Cool down is an important part of the workout because it assists the body in doing all of these things to prevent injury and promote health. 40. Decreased 41. Medial rotation – Moving away from the midline of the body is known as lateral rotation. 42. Gait 43. Limit of stability 44. False – The body’s ability to stabilize joints during movement is considered active stabilization.

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Part 5: Safety, Legal and Business Issues 45. Decreased – The body’s natural cooling system, primarily sweating, can be thrown off by too much humidity in the air. 46. False – Gentle bouncing is not recommended during stretching as it does not provide any benefit and can prevent you from getting the most out of the stretching exercises. 47. Seek immediate medical assistance – There are a variety of reasons why this could be occurring, and all of them requiring medical attention. The prudent trainer will seek medical assistance to avoid serious health consequences to the client and avoid the possibility of liability or negligence. 48. Airway – The first step is to check the airway to see if it is clear and to clear it if necessary. 49. True – The bronchial tubes constrict in cold weather, making it more difficult to breathe and potentially exacerbating existing asthmatic symptoms. 50. Osteoarthritis 51. Every day – This is the SAFEST course of action and will go a long way toward preventing injury from faulty or broken equipment. 52. False – However, it is important to note that where there is an existing or previous injury, wraps and braces can make exercise more comfortable and help reduce the risk of recurring injury. 53. Drinking too much water – Although normally associated with dehydration, hyponatremia refers to abnormally low levels of sodium in the blood and can be caused by drinking too much water.

Part 6: +utrition 54. Grains, milk, meat and beans, oils – Other categories include fruits and vegetables (now separate categories). 55. Iron deficiency – Physically active women use iron more efficiently and more quickly and are at higher risk for deficiency.

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56. All of the answers EXCEPT decreasing activity and increasing consumption are correct. To create a calorie deficit you must use more calories than you consume. 57. 2100 58. 88 – There are 4 calories per 1 gram of carbohydrates or protein and 9 calories per 1 gram of fat. Therefore, you can calculate the answer as shown: (4 x 9) + (10 x 4) + (3 x 4) = 88.

Part 7: Training Special Populations 59. Restrictive lung disease 60. Weight loss during pregnancy can be toxic to the fetus – It is NOT recommended that women try to lose weight during pregnancy even if they were overweight or obese when they became pregnant. 61. Atrophy – This is muscle loss and degeneration.

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