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NO. :

MH-CET - 2014 Test Booklet Code

ON LINE TEST NO. - 1 PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY This test contains 32 printed pages. Day and Date: Sunday, 13th April, 2014

A

Duration : 02.00 pm to 05.00 pm Total Marks : 360

Important Instructions : 1. The test is of 3 hours duration. 2. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720. 3. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under. Part A - PHYSICS (180 marks) - Question No. 1 to 45 - FOUR (4) marks each. Part B - CHEMISTRY (180 marks) - Question No. 46 to 90 - FOUR (4) marks each. Part C - BIOLOGY (Botany & Zoology) (360 marks) - Question No. 91 to 180 - FOUR (4) marks each. 4. There are 90 questions. Each correct answer carries 4 marks and for each incorrect answer one mark will be deducted. For every Question there are four choices. Out of these choices only one choice is correct. 5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electonic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters) : _________________________________________________ Roll Number : in figures : in words

_________________________________________________________

Examination Centre Number :

0

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters) : _______________________________________ Candidate's Signature: __________________ Invigilator's Signature : __________________

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

DEEPER MH-CET ONLINE TEST PAPER - 1 2014

PART - A : PHYSICS Q.1

The S.I. unit of Planck's constant (h) is ______ A) Watt. second B) J.s 1 C) Ws D) Js-1

Q.2

A woman walks in rain with a velocity of 5 kmh-1. The rain drops strike at her at an angle of 450 with the horizantal. The downword velocity of rain drops will be ______ A) 5 kmh-1 B) 1.5 kmh-1 C) 2 kmh-1 D) 2.5 kmh-1

Q.3

A juggler keeps on moving four balls in air in regular intervals of time. When one ball leaves his hand (speed 20 ms-1), the position of the other balls will be ______ (g = 10 ms-2) A) 10m, 20m, 10m B) 15m, 20m, 15m C) 5m, 15m, 20m D) 5m, 10m, 20m

Q.4

The cross product of two vectors is not commutative because ______ A) cos  = -cos(-  ) B) tan  = -tan(-  ) C) sin  = -sin(-  ) D) None of these

Q.5

The The A) C)

Q.6

The angular speed of the hour hand of a clock will be ______

time of flight of a projectile is related to its horizontal range by the equation gT2 = 2R. angle of projection is ______ 300 B) 450 1 sin- 2 D) tan-1 2

A)

 rad.s 1 1800

B)

2 rad.s 1 1800

C)

 rad.s 1 21600

D)

2 rad.s 1 2160

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Q.7

A machine gun fires 'n' bullets per second each of mass 'm'. If the speed of each bullet is 'u', then the recoil force is ______ A) nmg B) nmv C)

Q.8

DEEPER MH-CET ONLINE TEST PAPER - 1 2014

nmvg

D)

mnv g

In the given figure, a block of 60 N is placed on a rough surface. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is 0.5. What should be the weight W such that the block does not slip on the surface ? A

45

0

T2

T1

C 60N

W

Q.9

A)

60N

B)

60 N 2

C)

30N

D)

30 N 2

When a body is lifted from rest to a height 'h' and the body is in static or dynamic equilibrium, then ______ A) work done by individual forces must be zero B) net work done is +ve C) net work done is -ve D) net work done is zero

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Q.10 An automobile weighing 1200 kg climbs up a hill that rises 1 m in 20 seconds. Neglecting frictional effects, the minimum power developed by the engine is 9000 W. Then the velocity of the automobile will be ______ (g = 10 ms-2) A) 36 kmh-1 B) 54 kmh-1 C) 72 kmh-1 D) 90 kmh-1 Q.11

The A) B) C) D)

position of the C. M. of a cube of uniform density shall be at ______ the edge of a cube the center of one face the center of intersection diagonals of one face the geometric center of the cube

Q.12 A wheel starts from rest and acquires a rotational speed of 240 r.p.s. in 2 min. Its angular acceleration (in rad s-2) is ______ A) 5 B) 2 C) 8 D) 11 Q.13 Gravitational force between a point mass 'm', and M separeted by a distance is F. Now if a point mass '2m' is placed next to 'm' in contact with it, the force on M due to 'm' and the total on 'm' are ______ A) 2F, F B) F, 2F C) F, 3F D) F, F Q.14 There is no atmosphere on the moon because ______ A) it is very near to the earth. B) it does not have its own light. C) it gets light from the sun. D) the escape velocity of the gas of moon's atmosphere is less than the r.m.s. velocity on moon. Q.15 A block hanging from one end of a fixed wire, is stretched by 1 cm. When the block is immersed in a liquid, the wire gets stretched by 0.66 cm. The ratio of relative densities of the block and liquid is ______ A) 3 : 1 B) 5 : 3 C) 3 : 2 D) 4 : 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.16 A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel and is rotated about its longest axis. If the radius of the cylinder is 0.05 m and speed of rotation is 2 rad s- 1 then the difference in the height of the liquid at the center and the side of the vessel is ______

w

h

A) C)

20 cm 2 cm

B) D)

4 cm 0.2 cm

Q.17 Two samples, A and B of a gas at the same initial temperature and pressure are compressed V , A isothermally and B adiabatically. The final pressure of A will be______ 2 greater than that of B B) equal to that of B less than that of B D) twice that of B

from volume V to A) C)

Q.18 Which statement is incorrect ? A) All reversible cycles have the same the efficiency. B) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than irreversible one. C) Carnot cycle is a reversible one. D) Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency in all cycles.

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Q.19 If the length of second's pendulum is increased by 2 %, how many second will it lose per day ? A) 3927 s B) 3727 s C) 3427 s D) 864 s

Q.20 A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of suspension is now moved upward according to the relation y = kt2 (k = 1 ms-2), where y is the vertical displacement. Now the time period becomes T2. The ratio of

T12 T22

is ______ (g = 10 ms-2)

A)

6 5

B)

5 6

C)

1

D)

4 5

Q.21 An observer starts moving with uniform acceleration 'a' towards a stationary sound source of frequency f0. As the observer approaches the source, the apperant frequency (f) heard by the observer varies with the time (t) as shown in figure ______

f

f

A)

B) t

t

f

f

C)

D) t

t

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

DEEPER MH-CET ONLINE TEST PAPER - 1 2014

Q.22 The charge +q is placed at the four corners of a square. How much charge be kept at its center so that the whole system is in equilibrium ? A)

q  (1  2 2) 4

B)

q  (1  2 2) 8

C)

q  (1  2 2) 2

D)

q  (1  2 2) 4

Q.23 A point charge is placed at X in front of an earthed metal sheet Y. The P and Q are two points between X and Y as shown in the figure. If the elecric field strength at P and Q are EP and EQ which one of the following statements is correct ?

+q X P

Q

Y

A) C)

EP = EQ EP < EQ

B) D)

EP > EQ EP = 0 = EQ

Q.24 Two small balls having equal charge +Q and mass 'm' equal are suspended by two insulating strings of equal length L from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole setup is in a region outside the gravitational field of earth. In equilibrium, the tension in each string is ______ A)

1 Q2 40 L2

C)

1 Q1 40 4L2

B)

1 Q2 40 2L2

D)

1 2Q 2 40 L2

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Q.25 Three dielectric slabs are inserted between the plates as shown. Then the net capacitance between the points P and Q is ______

P K2

K1

K3 Q

A)

A0  K1 2K 2 K 3     d  2 K 2  K3 

B)

A0  K1 K 2K3     d  2 K 2  K3 

C)

A0  2K 2 K 3   2K1   d  K 2  K3 

D)

A0  K1  K 2  K 3  d

Q.26 We are able to obtain fairly large currents in a conductor because ______ A) The electron drift speed is usually very large. B) The number density of free electrons as well as the electron drift speeds are very large and these compensate for the very small magnitude of the electron charge. C) The number density of free electrons is very high and this can compensate for the low values of electron drift speed and the very small magnitude of the electron charge. D) The very small magnitude of the electron charge has to be divided by the still smaller product of the number density and drift speed to get the electron current.

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Q.27 The phenomenon of superconductivity was first discovered by ______ A) Ohm B) H. Kammerlingh Onnes C) Andre M. Ampere D) Kirchhof Q.28 If a current is passed through a spring then it ______ A) compresses B) expands C) oscillates D) rotates Q.29 Three infinite long straight conductor K, L and M carrying currents 1 A, 2 A and 3 A respectively are placed as shown in figure. The resultant force on wire L will be ______

1A

2A

K A) B) C) D)

3A

L

M

towards K towards M zero perpendicularly outward to the plane of the paper

Q.30 The hysteresis cycle for a material of permanent magnet is ______ A) Tall and wide B) Short and wide C) Tall and narrow D) Short and narrow SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.31 A current of 3 ampere is flowing in a plane circular coil of radius 4 cm and number of turns 20. The coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field of magnetic induction 0.5 Telsa. Then the dipole moment of the coil is ______ A)

3000 amp-metre2

B)

0.3 amp-metre2

C)

75 amp-metre2

D)

300 amp-metre2

Q.32 When a current in a coil changes from 2 amp to 6 amp in 0.05 sec, an e.m.f. of 8 volt is induced in the coil. The coefficient of self induction of the coil is _____ A)

0.1 H

B)

0.2 H

C)

0.4 H

D)

2 H

Q.33 When 100 volt D. C. is applied across a solenoid a current 1.0 amp flows in it. When 100 volt A.C. is applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5 amp. If the frequency of A. C. source is 50 Hz, the impedance and inductance of the solenoid are ______ A)

200 Ohm and 0.55 Henry

B)

100 Ohm and 0.86 Henry

C)

300 Ohm and 1.0 Henry

D)

100 Ohm and 0.93 Henry

Q.34 In two separate set-ups of Young's double slit experiment using light of same wavelength, fringes of equal width are observed. If ratio of slit separation in the two is 2 : 3, the ratio of the distance between source and screen placed in the two set-ups is ______ A)

2 : 3

B)

3 : 2

C)

4 : 9

D)

9 : 4

Q.35 Which of the following is conserved when light waves interfere with each other ? A)

Energy

B)

Intensity

C)

Amplitude

D)

Momentum

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Q.36 A thin lens, made of glass of refractive index 1.5, has a front surface +11 D power amd back surface -6 D. If this lens is submerged in a liquid of refractive index 1.6, the resulting power of the lens is ______ A) -1 dioptre B) +1 dioptre C) -5 dioptre D) +5 dioptre Q.37 The speed of light in air is 3 × 108 ms-1. What will be its speed in diamond whose refractive index is 2.4 ? A) 3 × 108 ms-1 B) 1.25 × 108 ms-1 C) 332 ms-1 D) 7.2 × 108 ms-1 Q.38 Photoelectrons are emitted from a metal surface only when ______ A) Metal is initially charged B) Wavelength of incident light is less than some maximum limit C) D) Q.39 With A) B) C) D)

Frequency of incident light is less than some minimum value Incident angle should be graeter than the critcal angle the increase in the number of incident photons ______ Photo electric current decreases Kinetic energy of photoelectrons decreases Photo electric current increases Kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases

Q.40 In Bohr's model of atom, stationary orbits are postulated ______ A) To meet the condition that the atom is not ionized B) To meet the condition that the electrons moving in the stationary orbits do not radiate energy C) To meet the condition for the dynamical equilibrium of the electron D) In accordance with classical theory of elecromagnetism SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.41 What will happen if X-rays are allowed to fall on the surface of a zinc plate ? A) Electrons come out of the surface B) Photons come out of the surface C) Neutrons come out of the surface D) X-rays are reflected by the surface Q.42 In the terminology of semiconductor, what is a hole ? A) Space which was previously occupied by an electron B) A hole in a space time distribution of the universe C) Space which is negatively charged D) Dense area in space which even absorbs light i.e. a black hole Q.43 The correct symbol for zener diode is ______

A)

C)

+

-

B)

D)

+ +

-

Q.44 According to Maxwell's hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to ______ A) Electric current B) An emf C) Pressure radiant D) Magnetic field Q.45 Television signals have frequency range of ______ A) 10-50 MHz B) 50-100 MHz C) 100-200 MHz D) 10-50 KHz

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PART - B : CHEMISTRY Q.46 The number of NaCl formula unit per unitcell is ______ A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Q.47 How much of NaOH is required to neutralise 1500 cm3 of 0.1 N HCL ? A) 4g B) 6g C) 40g D) 60g Q.48 For a spontaneous reaction, G, equilibrium constant K and E0 cell will be respectively _____ A) -ve, >1, +ve B) +ve, >1, +ve C) -ve, 1, -ve Q.49 Ten moles of an ideal gas expands into vaccum at 250C. The work done is _____ A) 100 J B) 10 J C) 5 J D) Zero Q.50 For a chemical reaction ______ can never be a fraction. A) order B) half time C) molecularity D) rate constant Q.51 The major role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in small quantities in the electrolytic reduction of alumina, dissolved in fused cryolite (Na3AlF6) is ______ A) as a catalyst. B) to make the fused conducting mixture. C) to lower the temperature of the molten mass. D) to reduce the rate of oxidation of carbon at anode. Q.52 The rate constant for the reaction, CH3CHO(g)  CH4(g) + CO(g) is 0.035 M-1/2 S-1 at 730 K and 0.343 M-1/2S-1 at 790 K. The activation energy of the reaction is ______ (R = 8.314 J K-1 Mol) A) 1.824 kJ B) 182.4 kJ C) 18.24 kJ D) 0.00197 kJ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.53 Constantan is an alloy of _____ A) Cu and Ni C) Cu and Sn

B) D)

Fe and Ni Cu and Zn

Q.54 The noble gas used in Bartlett reaction is _____ A) Neon B) Argaon C) Krypton D) Xenon Q.55 Oxocations are formed by _____ A) transition elements C) actinoids

B) D)

lantnanoids alkaline earth metals

Q.56 Vitamin B12 is a complex of _______ A) Cobalt C) Zinc

B) D)

Nickel Vanadium

Q.57 The correct structure of ethylenediamine tetracetic acid is _____ HOOC-CH2

A)

CH2COOH C - CH = CH - N

HOOC-CH2

CH2COOH

HOOC

COOH

B)

C - CH = CH - N HOOC

COOH

HOOCH2C

C)

CH2COOH N - CH2 - CH2 - N

HOOCH2C

CH2COOH COOH

HOOCH2C

D)

CH2

COOH

N - CH - CH - N H

CH2COOH CH2 HOOC SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.58 An ether reacts with cold H2SO4 to give _____ A) a zwitter ion B) an Oxonium ion C) an Oxy anion D) an alkyl free ractical Q.59 The dry distillation of Calcium formate and subsequent treatment with conc. KOH gives a mixture of _______ A) CH3OH, HCOOK B) CH3CHO, HCOOK C) HCHO, HCOOK D) CH3CHO, CH3COOK Q.60 Identify the starting material of the following reaction _____ Mg A

ether

B

(1)CO2

CH2COOH

(2)H3O+

A)

CH2CN

B)

CH3

C)

CH2Br

D)

Li

Q.61 The reaction of CHCl3 and alcoholic KOH with p-toluidine gives ______ A)

H3C

CHO

B)

H3 C

OH

C)

H3C

NC

D)

H3C

CN

Q.62 Which of the following is non reducing sugar ? A) Ribase B) Lactose C) Sucrose D) Maltose Q.63 The two forms of D-glucopyranose obtained from the solution of -D-glucose are called ___ A) isomers B) anomers C) epimers D) enantiomers SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.64 Which of the following is NOT a synthetic polymer ? A) Polyisoprene B) Polybutadiene C) Polyethylene terephthalate D) Polyethylene Q.65 In which of the following polymer Empirical formula resemble with monomer ? A) Bakelite B) Teflon C) Nylon 6, 6 D) Dacron Q.66 The drug used for prevention of heart attack is ______ A) aspirin B) valium C) chloramphnicol D) cephalosprin Q.67 The most reactive nucleophile among the following is _____ A) CH3 OB) C6 H5 OC) (CH3)2CHOD) (CH3)2COQ.68 In which of the following net magnetic moment is zero ? A) Antiferromagnetic B) Ferrimagnetic C) Ferromagnetic D) Paramagnetic Q.69 The density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/ml. The molality of solution is _____ A) 0.44 molkg-1 B) 1.14 molkg-1 C) 3.28 molkg-1 D) 2.28 molkg-1 Q.70 A gas can expand from 100 ml to 250 ml under a constant pressure of 2 atm. The work done by the gas is ______ A) 30.38 J B) 25 J C) 5 KJ D) 16 J

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DEEPER MH-CET ONLINE TEST PAPER - 1 2014

Q.71 If three Faraday electricity is passed through the solution of AgNO3, CuSO4 and AuCl3, the molar ratio of the cations deposited at the cathodes will be _____ A) 6 : 3 : 2 B) 2 : 3 : 1 C) 1 : 1 : 1 D) 1 : 2 : 3

Q.72 The activation energy is represented by the following graph is _____ B

energy

A C

path of equation 

A) C)

A C

B) D)

B BA

Q.73 The heating of pyrites to remove sulphur is called as ______ A) Smelting B) Calcination C) liquation D) Roasting

Q.74 The maximum number of P = O bonds are present in _____ A) Pyrophosphorus Oxide B) Orthophosphoric acid C) Phosphoric acid D) Hypophosphorus oxide

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Q.75 The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by one mole of iodide ions are _____ A)

3

B)

1 3

C)

6

D)

1 6

B) D)

Maltase Amylase

Q.76 Which enzyme is present in saliva ? A) Urease C) Lactase

Q.77 Which of the following is not a biopolymer ? A) Proteins B) Rubber C) Cellulose D) DNA

Q.78 The oxiadation state of Fe in {Fe (H2O)5 (NO)}SO4 is ______ A) +1 B) +2 C) +3 D +4

Q.79 Lindane can be obtained by reaction of benzene with _____ A) CH3COCl/anhy.AlCl3 B) Cl2/anhy. AlCl3 C) Cl2/ sunlight D) CH3Cl/ Na metal Q.80 The product 'S' in following sequence of reaction is _______ C H ONa

HBr/H O

2 2 2 5 CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2   P   S

A) C)

(CH3)2CHOCH2CH3 CH3-(CH2)3 -O-CH2-CH3

B) D)

CH3CH2CH(CH3)-O-CH2-CH3 CH3(CH2)4-O-CH3

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Q.81 An organic compound A has molecular formula C3H6O. It undergoes iodoform test. When saturated with HCl, it gives 'B' with molecular formula C9H14O. The compounds 'A' and 'B' respectively are _____ A) Propanal and mesitylene oxide B) Propane and mesityl oxide. C) Propane and 2, 6-dimethyl-2, 5-hepta-dien-4 -one D) Propane and mesitylene oxide.

Q.82 Among the following, the weakest acid is _____ A) CH3COOH B) C6H5 COOH C) m-CH3O.C6H4COOH D) p-CH3O.C6H4 COOH

Q.83 Luminal, a barbiturate drug is used as _____ A) antihistamine B) sedative C) antiseptic D) antimalerial

Q.84 The molarity of a solution which contains 4g H3PO4 in 2.0 L of a solution is _____ A) 0.25 M B) 0.50 M C) 0.75 M D) 1.0 M

Q.85 Which of the following electron has highest energy ? A) 2s B) 2p C) 1s D) 4s

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DEEPER MH-CET ONLINE TEST PAPER - 1 2014

Q.86 The degree of dissociation (  ) for weak base, according to Ostwald's dilution law is related as _____ A) Kb1/2 × C1/2 B) Kb-1/2 × V-1/2 1/2 1/2 C) Kb× C D) Kb1/2 × C-1/2 Q.87 Which of the following is monoatomic ? A) N2 B) C) C2 D)

B2 Be2

Q.88 Which of the following is heaviest isotopic compound of water ? A) H2O B) D2O C) T2O D) DTO Q.89 How many chain isomers are possible for saturated hydrocarbon, containing seven carbon atoms ? A) Six B) Nine C) Eight D) Seven

Q.90 Which of the following alkene exhibit cis-trans isomerisnm ? A) H2C=CH2 B) CH3-CH2 -CH=CH2 C)

C2 H 5  C  C  C2 H 5 | | CH 3 CH 3

D)

(CH3)2C=CH-CH3

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PART - C : BIOLOGY Q.91 Dihybrid test cross ratio is _____ A) 3 : 1 C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

B) D)

1 : 1 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

Q.92 Single spiral of DNA contains 25% Adenine. Total number of hydrogen bonds present in it are ________ A) 24 B) 25 C) 26 D) 30 Q.93 Match the following : Name of crop plant (a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Sugarcane A) a - ii, b - iii, c - i C) a - i, b - ii, c - iii

Variety i) Co. 205 ii) Lerma Rojo 64-A iii) Kanti B) a - iii, b - i, c - ii D) a - ii, b - i, c - iii

Q.94 The bacterial pathogen which is used as a herbicide ? A) Pseudomonas sp B) Nosema locustae C) Alternaria crassa D) Fusarium sp. Q.95 How many CO2 molecules are required to synthesize 100 molecules of glucose ? A) 6 B) 60 C) 600 D) 6000 Q.96 How many protons and electrons are required for the formation of a molecule of metabolic water at the end of ETS ? A) 2 and 2 B) 2 and 4 C) 4 and 1 D) 1 and 1 Q.97 In the development of male gametophyte which cell lacks a definite cell wall ? A) Vegetative cell B) Germ cell C) Generative cell D) Epidermal cell SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.98 Local abundance of phosphate can cause overgrowth of ____ A) Fungi B) Algae C) Bryophyta D) Pteridophyta Q.99 In mango plant the type of phyllotaxy is _______ A) opposite B) opposite decussate C) opposite superposed D) alternate Q.100 __________ is a linear molecule. A) Messenger RNA C) Transfer RNA

B) D)

Ribosomal RNA DNA

Q.101 The tallest gymnosperm among the following is ________ A) Wolffia B) Sequoia sempervirens C) Zamia pygmaea D) Taxodium mucronatum Q.102 Which one of the following is a macronutrient ? A) Fe++ B) Cu++ C) Zn++ D) Mn++ Q.103 In F2 generation of dihybrid cross, the frequency of genotype YyRr out of every sixteen plants will be __________ A) 9 B) 4 C) 3 D) 1 Q.104 A DNA segment contain 200 nucleotides. Total number of phosphodiester bonds present in it are _________. A) 200 B) 199 C) 198 D) 100 Q.105 In PCR technique pairing of primer to ss DNA segment is called ______ A) polymerisation B) heat denaturation C) annealing D) thermostabilization

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DEEPER MH-CET ONLINE TEST PAPER - 1 2014

Q.106 'Pusa Gaurav' is resistant to ______ A) ball worms C) jassids Q.107 Match the pairs : (1) Invertase (2) Pectinase (3) Lipase A) C)

1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - a

B) D)

aphids stem borer

(a) (b) (c) (d) B) D)

Sclerotiana Trichoderma konigi Saccharomyces cerevisiae Rhizopus sp. 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d

Q.108 When glucose is completely oxidised, in cytoplasmic respiration, how many pyruvates are obtained for further process ? A) One B) Two C) Four D) Eight Q.109 Which one of the following has haploid number of chromosomes ? A) Nucellus and antipodal cells B) Egg cell and antipodal cell C) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cell D) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus Q.110 In desert area xerarch succession starts with the growth of ________ A) fungi B) algae C) lichen D) bryophyta Q.111 The cell growth takes place in _____ phase. A) S -phase B) C) M -phase D)

G1 phase G2 phase

Q.112 Which of the following Auxin is used to produce parthenocarpic fruits ? A) IBA B) 2, 4-D C) 2, 4, 5-T D) IAA

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Q.113 Ascomycetes are commonly called ________ . A) algal fungi B) club fungi C) sac fungi D) imperfect fungi Q.114 Which group of algae shows equal-sized flagella ? A) Green algae B) Brown algae C) Red algae D) Blue-green algae Q.115 In Drosophila Vg+ denotes ______ A) nicked wings C) vestigial wings

B) D)

notched wings normal wings

Q.116 Which is NOT nonsense codon ? A) UCA C) UGA

B) D)

UAA UAG

Q.117 Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a soil bacteria produce protein with ___________ . A) insecticidal qualities B) weedicidal qualities C) bactericidal qualities D) fungicidal qualities Q.118 Daucus carota produces which type of secondary metabolites ? A) Vincristine B) Anthocyanin C) Menthol D) Tropane Q.119 Clostridium bacteria is used in __________ for biogas production . A) acetogenesis B) anaerobic digestion C) methanogenesis D) acidogenesis Q.120 Which of the following protons are required to fix CO2 into PGA ? A) Mn++ B) Fe++ ++ C) Mg D) Zn++ Q.121 How many ATPs and NADPH2 are synthesized in payoff phase of aerobic and anaerobic respiration of glucose ? A) 4 and 4 B) 4 and 2 C) 2 and 2 D) 2 and 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.122 The arrangement of megaspores in tetrad in an angiosperms is _________ . A) decussate B) tetrahedral C) linear D) isobilateral Q.123 The deposition of pesticides in the fatty tissue of the host cell is called _____ A) bioaccumulation B) biodegradation C) biogenesis D) biomagnification Q.124 In family fabaceae type of inflorescence is _______ A) cymose B) solitary C) racemose D) axillary cymose Q.125 The plasmodesmata interconnect the cytoplasm of all cells and forms cytoplasmic network is called _______ . A) apoplast B) chromoplast C) symplast D) chloroplast Q.126 Cytokinins, are the derivative of ________ nitrogen bases. A) guanine B) adenine C) cytosine D) thymine Q.127 'Z' gene in lac operon codes for _____ A) permease B) C) ligase D)

transacetylase galactosidase

Q.128 How many electrons are required for the formation of 20 NADPH2 in non-cyclic electron transfer ? A) two B) four C) twenty D) forty Q.129 How many Kreb's cycles are required for the formation of 20 FADH2 ? A) two B) ten C) twenty D) thirty

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Q.130 Nucellus of ovule is made up of ______________ . A) diploid parenchymatous cells B) haploid parenchymatous cells C) collenchymatous cells D) sclerenchymatous cells Q.131 The centromeres of the chromosomes divide in ________ A) metaphase B) anaphase C) telophase D) prophase Q.132 New DNA strand is always synthesized in ______ direction. A) 3' - 5' B) 5' - 5' C) 3' - 3' D) 5' - 3' Q.133 How many water molecules are required to obtain 40H- and 4H+ ? A) One B) Two C) Four D) Eight Q.134 The example of non endospermic seed is ___________ . A) Pea B) Castor C) Coconut D) Sunflower Q.135 In monocot embryo, plumule is surrounded by protective sheath called ______ A) coleorhiza B) coleoptile C) integument D) endodermis Q.136 Total sum of all the genes of interbreeding individuals of population is called _____ A) gene pool B) gene flow C) genetic drift D) genetic mutation Q.137 Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen causes muscle fatigue due to formation of ______ A) citric acid B) acetic acid C) lactic acid D) ascorbic acid Q.138 ________ present in semen provides a proof for forensic test in rape case. A) Glucose B) Fructose C) Lactose D) Sucrose SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.139 Number of linkage groups in honey bees are _____ A) 23 B) 21 C) 16 D) 12 Q.140 Blood group of children is either A or B or AB or O, indicates ______ A) both the parents are heterozygous for blood group A and B B) father is heterozygous for blood group A and mother is homozygous for blood group B C) both the parents are homozygous for blood group A and B D) blood group of father is 'O' and mother is 'AB' Q.141 Haversian system is characteristic feature of _______ A) avian bone B) reptilian bone C) mammalian bone D) amphibian bone Q.142 In cockroach, Malpighian tubules are _______ in function. A) digestive B) excretory C) reproductive D) nervous Q.143 ______ cells does not participate in the formation of human embryo proper. A) Inner cell mass B) Trophoblast C) Embryonic disc D) Embryonic knob Q.144 Atherosclerosis refers to ___________ . A) deposition of fatty substances in the lining of arteries B) deposition of fatty substances in the lining of veins C) narrow and hardened coronary arteries D) lumen of artery become narrow Q.145 Addison's syndrome is developed due to _____ A) hyposecretion at ACTH B) hyposecretion of TSH C) hyposecretion at glucagon D) hyposecretion of FSH

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Q.146 A cell is totipotent because __________. A) cell enclosed by a plasma membrane B) cell has protoplasm C) cell has different cell organelles D) cell has entire genetic information of organisms in its nucleus Q.147 Lac is produced by an _____ A) Tacchardia lacca C) Periplanta americana

B) D)

Apis florea Bombyx mori

Q.148 Corpora quadrigemina is a part of ___________. A) prosencephalon B) mesencephalon C) rhombencephalon D) thalamencephalon Q.149 Thick layer of urinary bladder is made up of ___________. A) detrusor muscles B) dartos muscles C) sphincter muscles D) depressor muscles Q.150 Haemoglobin has ______ times more affinity to carbon monoxide than oxygen. A) 150 B) 250 C) 100 D) 50 Q.151 Emulsification of fat takes place by _____ A) pancreatic juice B) C) HCl D)

bile salivary amylase

Q.152 Presence of whole sets of chromosomes is called _____ A) euploidy B) monoploidy C) polyploidy D) aneuploidy

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Q.153 Which of the following is NOT a feature of acquired immunity ? A) Memory B) Specificity C) Diversity D) Present since birth Q.154 _______ is NOT a function of neuroglia. A) Support B) C) Nourishment D)

Protection Contraction

Q.155 Human female gamete is ___________ . A) motile and microlecithal B) C) nonmotile and microlecithal D)

non motile and oligolecithal motile and oligolecithal

Q.156 Human heart is __________ in origin. A) ectoderm C) mesoderm

endoderm gastroderm

B) D)

Q.157 During aerobic respiration ________ can convert pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water. A) ribosomes B) nucleus C) mitochondria D) plastids Q.158 'Smog' is a mixture of __________ . A) water and smoke C) fog and dew

B) D)

smoke and fog dew and smoke

Q.159 Prawn culture is included in ____________ . A) Sericulture B) Fish culture C) Moth culture D) Lac culture Q.160 Chemical transmission of the nerve impulse in synapse is by _____ A) acetylcholine B) inositol triphosphate C) cholinesterase D) insulin Q.161 What is the name for fossil given when impression of body parts left on soft mud ? A) Cast B) Mould C) Actual remains D) Amber SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.162 Uric acid in uricotelic animals excreted in the form of ___________ . A) solid pellets B) liquid C) gel D) vapours

Q.163 The ________ is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) A) asbestosis B) silicosis C) asthma D) emphysema Q.164 'Islets of Langerhans' are present in _____________ . A) salivary gland B) pancreas C) liver D) gastric gland Q.165 'Typhim Vi' is a ___________ . A) live oral typhoid vaccine B) typhoid causing pathogen C) injectable typhoid polysaccharide vaccine D) diagnosis test of typhoid Q.166 Total _____ pairs of ganglions are present in nerve cord of cockroach. A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 Q.167 ________ is highly vascular and secretary layer of uterus. A) Mesometrium B) Perimetrium C) Myometrium D) Endometrium Q.168 Decrease in RBC count is called ____________ . A) anemia B) erythropoiesis C) polycythemia D) erythrocytopenia Q.169 One of the following is NOT a homeothermic animal. A) Pigeon B) Squirrel C) Frog D) Dolphin

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Q.170 The atrial wall of heart secretes _________ . A) ANF B) CSF C) PPF D) ECF Q.171 Renal pyramids are present in ___________ . A) medulla B) capsule C) cortex D) pelvis Q.172 Deamination process takes place in ___________. A) intestine B) liver C) pancreas D) spleen Q.173 The __________ part of urethra passes through corpus spongiosum . A) prostatic B) membranous C) penile D) whole Q.174 _________ is a colourless liquid connective tissue A) Blood B) Lymph C) Plasma D) Serum Q.175 Find odd man out. A) Rohu C) Whale

B) D)

Catla Mrigal

Q.176 The JG cell complex in kidney secrete ___________. A) gastrin B) secretin C) erythropoietin D) thromboplastin Q.177 Guanine is excreted by __________. A) spider C) snail

B) D)

toad snake

Q.178 During _________ phase of menstrual cycle, development of ovum takes place in ovary. A) menstrual B) follicular C) ovulatory D) luteal SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Q.179 Which of the below character is NOT suitable for Archaeopteryx ? A) Single headed ribs B) Long tail supported by several caudal vertebrae C) Pneumatic bones D) Homodont teeth Q.180 Pivot joint is formed between _____ A) tibia and fibula . B) atlas and axis C) lumbar vertebra and thoracic vertebra D) radius and carpel

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