1.
III. RESPIRATORY SYSTEM TESTS General data SC Organs of the respiratory system develop from: a) middle gut b) ventral wall of the foregut c) hindgut d) ectoderm e) mesoderm
2.
SC The respiratory ways intersect with the digestive ones within: a) nasopharynx b) oropharynx c) laryngopharynx d) fauceum e) aditus laryngis (inlet into the larynx)
3.
MC Breathing as physiological process includes: a) pulmonary respiration (or external one) b) cutaneous respiration c) broncho-vesicular respiration d) tissue respiration (or internal one) e) abdominal respiration
4.
MC Regarding respiratory ways: a) are divided into supra- and infraglottic ones b) their wall are rigid due to the bony or fibro-cartilaginous skeleton c) outside they are covered by peribronchial tissue d) inside their walls are lined by mucous coat e) their submucous coat is rich in blood vessels networks that assure the warming of the inspired air.
5.
MC Regarding mucous coat of the respiratory ways: a) it is covered by ciliated epithelium b) under it is located the submucous coat c) does not contain blood vessels networks d) does not contain nervous plexuses e) as a whole it represents a coughing zone
6.
MC The lymphoid structures of the respiratory ways are represented by: a) lymph tissue of the mucous coat chorion b) agglomeration of lymph nodes at the level of the epiglottis c) tonsil of the tracheal carina (carina trachea) d) laryngeal tonsil e) nasopharyngeal tonsil
7.
MC Functions of the respiratory ways are: a) humidifying the inspired air b) purification of the inspired air c) exchange of gases d) participation in metabolic processes e) warming the air
8.
MC Regarding respiratory ways: a) their walls are rigid due to the bony or fibro-cartilaginous skeleton b) their walls are lined inside with mucous coat c) outside are covered by peribronchial tissue d) within their submucous coat there are a lot of arteriolar networks that assure the warming of the inspired air e) are classified into superior and inferior and are separated from each other by glottis
9.
MC Regarding mucous coat of the respiratory ways: it is lined with ciliated epithelium under it the submucous coat is located it contains lymph nodes and disseminated endocrine cells does not contain blood vessels networks it can be examined by endoscopic method
a) b) c) d) e)
10.
External nose and nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses SC Inferior nasal meatus communicates (connects) with: a) orbit b) maxillary sinus c) frontal sinus d) sphenoid sinus e) oral cavity
11.
SC The hemorrhagic zone (vascular plate of Kiesselbach) is located in the mucous coat of the: a) superior nasal meatus b) middle nasal meatus c) nasal septum at about 1 cm above the nostrils d) superior nasal concha e) middle nasal concha
12.
MC Between the external (cutaneous) and internal (cutaneo-mucous) surface of the external nose are located the following tissues of this region: a) the adipose subcutaneous tissue b) the muscular plan (or muscular tissue) c) the serous coat d) the osteocartilaginous skeleton e) the adventitia
13.
MC The main shapes of the external nose are: a) straight nose (Augustine type) b) Greek nose (Venus de Millo type) c) bifurcated nose d) curved nose aquiline (Dantes type) e) hollow nose (Socrates type)
14.
MC Regarding external nose: a) few types are distinguished b) it consists of root, dorsum, apex, wings (allae nasi) and nostrils c) it consists of a osteocartilaginous skeleton d) the allar groove separates the nostrils from the cheeks e) its cavity forms the nasal vestibule
15.
MC The nasal vestibule: a) it is a canal of about 15 mm in length b) it is located between the nostrils and limen nasi c) inside its walls are lined by mucous coat d) at its entrance hair or (vibrissae) are distinguished e) separates the inspired air into two streams
16.
MC The external nose: a) it houses the whole nasal cavity b) it has a shape of a triangular pyramid with the base turned downwards c) does not have racial and gender peculiarities (specific features) d) it determines the physiognomy e) it is located on the midline of the face
17.
MC The nasal mucosa has the following functions: a) respiratory b) olfactory c) protective d) resonance e) worming the inspired air
18.
MC On alive the nasal cavity can be examined by: a) inspection b) palpation c) rhinoscopy d) ultrasound examination e) x-ray examination
19.
MC Into the middle nasal meatus open: a) frontal sinus b) posterior ethmoidal cells c) maxillary sinus d) nasolacrimal canal e) anterior ethmoidal cells
20.
MC Into the superior nasal meatus open: a) sphenoid sinus b) posterior ethmoidal cells c) anterior ethmoidal cells d) frontal sinus e) maxillary sinus
21.
MC Nasal cavity: a) connects with external environment through the nostrils b) connects with the rhinopharynx through the choanae c) the walls and the vestibule and the nasal cavity are lined with mucous coat d) venous plexuses are distinguished in the submucous coat of the medial surface of the nasal conchae e) the largest part of the nasal cavity is represented by the vestibule
22.
MC Nasal cavity: a) it is located in the upper part of the facial skull b) it is in the vicinity with the middle cranial fossa, oral cavity, orbits and nasopharynx c) the nasal septum divides the nasal cavity into two symmetrical halves named nasal fossae d) each nasal fossae consists of vestibule and proper nasal fossa, that are separated by means of limen nasi e) the proper nasal fossa is divided into respiratory, olfactory and hemorrhagic regions MC Nasal cavity: a) it connects with external environment by means of nostrils and with the nasopharynx by means of choanae b) both its parts – the vestibule and the proper nasal fossa are lined with mucous coat c) in the coat that lines the vestibule there sweat glands, sebaceous gland and hair (vibrissae) d) the mucous coat of the respiratory and olfactory regions is of different colour e) in the submucous coat of the medial surface of the nasal conchae, especially at the level of the inferior nasal concha the cavernous (venous) plexuses are distinguished
23.
24.
MC Regarding functions of the paranasal sinuses: a) diminish the weight of the skull b) increase the resistance of the skull c) play a role of thermal isolators d) are sounds' resonators e) increase the weight of the skull
25.
MC The following nasal meatuses are distinguished: a) superior, middle, inferior b) common nasal meatus c) nasopharyngeal meatus d) nasobuccal meatus e) nasolaryngeal meatus
26.
MC Maxillary sinus (antrum of Highmore): a) it is the largest sinus b) it is of trihedral pyramidal shape c) it has a base and three walls d) it opens by means of semilunar hiatus into the superior nasal meatus e) its base is located at the level of the second premolar, first and second molars
27.
MC Maxillary sinus: it opens into the common nasal meatus its inferior wall is located at the level of the second premolar, first and second molars its development starts at 5-6 years of age its superior wall corresponds to the inferior wall of the orbit it may be examined on alive person by means of diaphanoscopy
28.
MC Regarding frontal sinus: a) it is a pyramidal cavity b) the both frontal sinuses are separated from each other by a septum c) it opens into the superior nasal meatus d) it opens by ethmoidal infundibulum into the middle nasal meatus e) it is located in the nasal part of the frontal bone
29.
MC Sphenoid sinus: a) it is an irregular cuboid cavity b) it is divided by a septum into two asymmetrical halves c) it opens into the sphenoethmoidal recess d) it opens into the middle nasal meatus e) it is located inside the body of the sphenoid bone
) ) ) ) )
30.
31.
Larynx SC Skeleton of the larynx consists of following cartilages: a) thyroid, cricoid, corniculate, hyoid, arytenoid, cuneiform b) thyroid, cricoid, glottic, corniculate, arytenoid, cuneiform c) thyroid, cricoid, epiglottic, arytenoid, cuneiform, corniculate d) thyroid, cricoid, hyoid, epiglottic, arytenoid, corniculate e) thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, epiglottic, hyoid, sesamoid SC The inferior margin of the larynx is located at the level of: a) C5 b) C6 c) C4 d) hyoid bone e) T1
32.
SC Regarding the skeletotopy of the larynx: a) it corresponds to the IInd-VIIth cervical vertebrae b) it corresponds to the IVth, Vth, VIth cervical vertebrae c) it is located between the exobase of the skull and VIth cervical vertebra d) it is located at the level of the IInd-Vth cervical vertebrae e) it is located at the level of the IIIrd-VIth cervical vertebrae
33.
SC It consists just from elastic cartilaginous tissue: a) thyroid cartilage b) arytenoid cartilage c) corniculate cartilage d) cuneiform cartilage e) epiglottis
34.
SC The vocal ligaments insert on: a) thyroid and cricoid cartilages b) arytenoid cartilage and epiglottis c) thyroid and arytenoid cartilages d) thyroid and cuneiform cartilages e) thyroid and corniculate
35.
SC The main abductor muscle of the vocal cords is: a) cricothyroid muscles b) lateral cricoarytenoid muscle c) posterior cricoarytenoid muscle d) thyroarytenoid muscle e) arytenoid muscle
36.
SC It inserts on processus vocalis of the arytenoid cartilage and angle of the thyroid cartilage: a) thyrohyoid ligament b) vocal ligament c) cricothyroid ligament d) lateral thyroarytenoid ligament e) cricoarytenoid ligament
37.
SC The following muscles action as constrictors of the rima glottidis, EXCEPTING: a) lateral cricoarytenoid muscle b) thyroarytenoid muscle c) transverse arytenoid muscle d) oblique arytenoid muscle e) thyroepiglottic muscle Propun sa facem compliment multiplu.
38.
SC The following muscles are tensors of the vocal ligament a) lateral cricoarytenoid muscle b) oblique arytenoid muscle c) cricothyroid and vocal muscles d) posterior cricothyroid muscle e) thyroepiglottic muscle
39.
CS The constitutive elements of the larynx ensure the following qualities of the laryngeal sounds: a) intensity b) height c) timbre d) duration e) all mentioned above
40.
MC Functions of the larynx are: a) protection b) support c) respiration d) locomotion e) phonation MC Arytenoid cartilages: a) are paired b) have a pyramidal shape c) are connected to the cricoid cartilage by syndesmosis d) consist of hyalinic and elastic cartilage e) the vocal ligaments are inserted on them
41.
42.
MC The laryngeal cavity consists of following parts: a) aditus laryngis b) vestibule of the larynx c) infraglottic cavity d) interventricular part e) rima glottidis
43.
MC The inlet into the larynx (aditus laryngis) is bounded by: a) epiglottis b) lateral glossoepiglottic folds c) aryepiglottic folds d) interarytenoid fold e) posterior wall of the laryngopharynx
44.
MC Regarding laryngeal ventricles: a) are bounded below by the vocal folds and above by the vestibular folds b) contain lymph nodes c) play a resonator role d) contribute to humidification of the vocal folds e) facilitates vibrations of the vocal folds
45.
MC Reflexogenous zones of the larynx (after М. С. Грачёвa) are located: a) around the inlet into the larynx b) on the whole surface of the laryngeal mucosa c) on the anterior surface of the arytenoid cartilages d) within the laryngeal ventricles e) within the mucous coat of the infraglottic part
46.
MC As reflexogenous zones of the larynx is considered the mucosa of the: a) aryepiglottic folds b) glossoepiglottic folds c) walls of the laryngeal vestibule d) vocal folds e) walls of the infraglottic part
47.
MC According to its syntopy the larynx comes in contact with following organs: a) pharynx b) thyroid gland c) nasal cavity d) suprahyoid muscles e) infrahyoid muscles SC The following paired cartilages belong to the larynx: a) thyroid b) cricoid c) epiglottis d) arytenoid e) alar
48.
49.
MC Tensors of the vocal folds are the following muscles: a) posterior cricoarytenoid b) internal thyroarytenoid c) vocal d) cricothyroid e) aryepiglottic
) ) ) ) )
50.
MC On alive person the morphology of the larynx can be examined by: a) palpation b) auscultation c) laryngoscopy d) x-rays examination e) ultrasonic examination
51.
MC Regarding glottic space (rima glottidis): a) it is located between the vocal folds (cords) b) it is the space between the vocal and vestibular folds c) two parts are distinguished to it: the anterior, or intermembranous part and posterior, or intercartilaginous one d) its dimensions vary according to age and gender e) it narrows in respiration and enlarges in phonation
52.
SC All the mentioned below muscles action as constrictors of the glottis (rima glottidis): a) lateral cricoarytenoid muscle b) transverse arytenoid muscle c) oblique arytenoid muscle d) posterior cricoarytenoid muscle e) thyroarytenoid muscle
53.
MC Location of the larynx according to age: a) in new-born it corresponds to the upper four cervical vertebrae b) in new-born it corresponds to the to the IInd-IVth cervical vertebrae c) at 12-14 years of age it acquires its final location d) in adults it corresponds to the IVth-VIth cervical vertebrae e) in female it is about 0,5-1,0 cm higher, than in male
54.
MC The cartilages of the larynx are united by means of: a) synovial joints b) hemiarthroses c) ligaments d) fibroelastic membrane e) all types of joints
55.
MC Vocal fold contains: vocal ligament vocal muscle mucous coat, lined with cylindrical ciliated epithelium submucous coat adipose tissue
56.
SC Relaxation of the vocal folds occurs under contraction of the: posterior cricoarytenoid muscle internal thyroarytenoid muscle vocal muscle cricothyroid muscle transverse arytenoid muscle
57.
MC With stratified epithelium are lined: aryepiglottic folds glossoepiglottic folds interarytenoid fold vocal folds mucous coat of the infraglottic part
58.
MC In comparison with the larynx of an adult, the larynx of a new-born: is of relatively greater dimensions it is located higher (at the level of the IInd-IVth cervical vertebrae) its longitudinal axis is inclined posteriorly the aditus is relatively larger the rima glottidis is three times shorter
59.
MC In puberty the following processes take over in the larynx: intensive development of muscles all its dimensions increase its longitudinal axes becomes more vertical ossification of the thyroid cartilage voice changes (mutatio vocis)
) ) ) ) )
) ) ) ) )
) ) ) ) )
) ) ) ) )
60.
61.
Trachea, bronchi, lungs SC Bifurcation of the trachea in adult is located at the level of: a) sternal angle (angulus of Louis) b) IIIrd sternochondral joints c) cartilage between the Vth and VIth thoracic vertebrae d) spinal process of the IVth thoracic vertebra e) bodies of the IVth-Vth thoracic vertebrae SC In adult the trachea is located in front of the: a) VIth cervical vertebra (its inferior margin) – Vth thoracic vertebra (its superior margin) b) Vth cervical vertebra – VI thoracic vertebra c) IVth cervical vertebra – IVth thoracic vertebra d) VIth cervical vertebra – IV thoracic vertebra e) intervertebral discs located between the VIth and VIIth cervical vertebra and intervertebral discs located between the Vth and VIth thoracic vertebrae
62.
SC The most sensitive zone of the tracheobronchial tree (the last defense line) is located at the level of the: a) origin of the first order bronchi b) carina of the trachea c) origin of the third order bronchi d) origin of the fourth order bronchi e) origin of the fifth order bronchi
63.
SC Four stages of intrauterine period of development are encountered for the fetal lung EXCEPTING: a) embryonic b) pseudoglandular c) canalicular d) terminal e) bronchial
64.
SC The morphofunctional (or structural) unit of the lung is: a) primary pulmonary lobule b) secondary pulmonary lobule c) pulmonary acinus d) bronchopulmonary segment e) alveolar tree
65.
SC Abnormalities of the pulmonary lobes are: a) lobar aplasia (absence) b) lobar hyperplasia c) fusion of lobes (merging lobes) d) accessory lobes e) all metioned above
66.
MC Trachea: a) bifurcates at the level of the IVth-Vth thoracic vertebrae b) consists of hyalinic cartilaginous rings c) in its upper part it comes in contact with the thyroid gland d) behind it the esophagus is located e) externally it is covered with adventitia
67.
MC Regarding trachea: a) its mucous coat is lined with flat stratified epithelium b) its membranous wall contains smooth muscular fibers that form the tracheal muscle c) its mucous coat contains lymph nodes d) the tracheal glands are serous, mucous and seromucous e) the skeleton of the trachea is represented by a fibrocartilaginous coat
68.
MC Carina of the trachea can be visualized by: a) direct laryngoscopy b) tracheography c) tracheobronchoscopy d) ecography e) tomography
69.
MC Holotopy of the trachea: a) anterior region of the neck b) anterior mediastinum (BNA) c) posterior mediastinum (BNA) d) superior mediastinum (PNA) e) inferior mediastinum (PNA)
70.
MC Structural peculiarities of the tracheal wall are: a) presence of stripped muscles b) presence of cartilaginous semirings c) presence of ciliated epithelium d) presence of stratified squamous epithelium e) presence of tracheal muscle
71.
MC The trachea comes in contact with: a) esophagus b) thymus c) infrahyoid muscles d) suprahyoid muscles e) the neurovascular patch (bundle) of the neck
72.
MC Regarding main bronchi: a) they have the same length and width b) the left is longer and narrower c) the right one is shorter and larger d) the right one is longer and larger e) the right one represents a continuation of the trachea
73.
MC The left bronchus: a) it is longer than the right one b) it has a more vertical position than the right one c) enters into the lung below the pulmonary artery d) it crosses the esophagus at the level of the IVth-Vth thoracic vertebrae e) it is less voluminous
74.
75.
76.
) ) ) ) ) 77.
78.
) ) ) ) )
MC The main right bronchus: a) it is about 25 - 30 mm in length b) it is located behind the thoracic aorta c) it has a more vertical position than the left one d) it is located above the artery (it has an epiarterial position) e) it is crossed by the azygos vein MC Cartilaginous structures are contained within the walls of the: a) lobar bronchus b) segmental bronchus c) terminal bronchiole d) respiratory bronchiole e) alveolar duct MC Cartilaginous structures are contained within the walls of the: intermediate bronchus segmental bronchus terminal bronchiole respiratory bronchiole lobular bronchus MC Regarding the right lung: a) it has an oblique and a horizontal fissure b) by means of pulmonary ligament it is fixed to the mediastinal pleura c) above its root passes the arch of the azygos vein d) it consists of ten bronchopulmonary segments e) the right pulmonary artery enters into the pulmonary hilum above the main bronchus (ABV) MC Regarding the root of the left lung: it is located at the level of the Vth-VIIth thoracic vertebrae it is crossed by the azygos vein in front it is crossed by the phrenic nerve behind it is located the superior vena cava the bronchus is located behind the artery
79.
MC Regarding the mediastinal surface of the left lung: a) it has a cardiac notch b) below the hilum there is a groove caused by the azygos vein c) the main bronchus is located below the left pulmonary artery d) the descending aorta passes behind the hilum forming there a depression e) below the hilum stretches the pulmonary ligament
80.
MC On the mediastinal surface of the right lung are distinguished depressions of the: a) azygos vein b) aortic arch c) superior vena cava d) heart (impressio cardiaca) e) azygos venous arch
81.
MC Regarding bronchopulmonary segments: a) are named and separated from each other by means of intersegmental septa b) correspond to the third order bronchus c) they have a proper vascular pedicle, which includes an artery and two veins d) all of them are projected on the thoracic wall e) are distinguished radiologically and clinically
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
MC Which of the following affirmations regarding the bronchopulmonary segment are true: a) they come in contact just with costal pleura b) segmental bronchus, segmental artery and lymph vessels form a common pedicle located in the center of the segment c) arteries and veins are located between the segments and supply the adjacent surfaces of few segments d) correspond to the third order bronchus e) none of the mentioned above affirmations is correct MC The mentioned bellow anatomical formations are referred to each segment: a) the third order bronchus b) a segmental branch of the pulmonary artery c) two segmental veins d) intersegmental veins e) segmental subdivision of the pulmonary plexus MC Regarding the alveolar tree: a) the terminal bronchioles are lined inside with cuboidal epithelium b) the walls of the alveolar sacs do not contain mucous glands c) the alveoles are lined inside with surfactant d) within the walls of the bronchioles there are cartilaginous plates e) the walls of the alveolar ducts contain alveoles MC Regarding the left lung: a) it has a horizontal and an oblique fissure b) it has just an oblique fissure c) in the hilum the pulmonary artery is located above the main bronchus d) above its root passes the azygos vein e) it consists of three lobes MC On the left lung can be distinguished de following impressions (depressions): a) impression of the aortic arch b) cardiac impression c) the azygos vein impression d) impression of the azygos vein arch e) the superior vena cava impression MC The right pulmonary pedicle comes in contact with: a) right phrenic nerve (in front) b) superior vena cava (in front) c) azygos vein and its arch (postero-superior) d) ascending aorta, arch of the aorta and descending aorta e) arterial ligament MC The left pulmonary pedicle comes in contact with: a) ascending aorta, arch of the aorta and descending aorta b) arterial ligament c) esophagus (posterior) d) superior vena cava (in front) e) azygos vein and its arch (postero-superior) MC Segments of the superior lobe of the right lung are: a) apical b) lateral c) posterior d) medial e) anterior
90.
91.
92.
93.
MC Segments of the middle lobe of the right lung are: a) apical b) lateral c) anterior d) medial e) posterior CM Segments of the inferior lobe of the right lung are: a) apical b) medial and lateral basal c) anterior and posterior basal d) superior lingular e) inferior lingular MC Segments of the superior lobe of the left lung are: a) apicoposterior b) lateral and medial c) anterior d) superior lingular e) posterior lingular MC Segments of the inferior lobe of the left lung are: a) apical b) medial and lateral basal c) anterior and posterior basal d) superior lingular e) inferior lingular
94.
MC The alveolo-capillary complex is built on: a) surfactant lining b) alveolar epithelium with basement epithelial membrane c) fundamental substance d) smooth muscular layer e) basement capillary membrane with endothelial capillary cells
95.
SC Regarding respiratory bronchioles: a) usually they can be of Ist-IVth order b) do not give ramifications (do not branch) c) continue with alveolar sacs and end with respiratory alveoles d) they are continuation of the terminal bronchioles e) they are continuation of the secondary lobular bronchioles
96.
MC The acinus is built on: a) respiratory bronchioles connected with a terminal bronchiole b) alveolar ducts c) respiratory alveoles and alveolar sacs d) terminal bronchiole e) secondary lobular bronchiole
97.
MC The primary pulmonary lobule includes: a) a last order respiratory bronchiole b) alveolar ducts c) respiratory alveoles and alveolar sacs d) a various order respiratory bronchiole that divides e) all the components referred to a terminal bronchiole
) ) ) ) )
98.
MC Pulmonary alveoles: a) are small hemispherical vesicular cavities b) their wall contains smooth muscular fibers c) open into the respiratory ducts and respiratory bronchioles d) do not posses "collateral" airways e) connect to each other by means of pores or stomates
99.
MC Regarding development of the lung: a) respiratory epithelium derives from endoderm b) the alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs start their development during the VIth month of the intrauterine life c) in new-born the last divisions of the bronchial and alveolar tree are of 18th order d) complete development of the pulmonary alveoles is attained just after birth e) the visceral pleura derives from splanchnopleura, but the parietal one – from somatopleura Pleura and mediastinum
100. SC The pleural cupola or pleural domus represents:
a) anterior costomediastinal recess b) posterior costomediastinal recess c) superior costomediastinal recess d) interazygoesophageal recess e) interaorticoesophageal recess 101. SC In a patient with congestive cardiac failure in a vertical posture intrapleural fluid
collection on the left side can be distinguished within the: inferior interpleural aria oblique fissure anterior costomediastinal recess costodiaphragmatic recess cardiac notch 102. SC Projection of the pleural recessess and of the lungs:
a) in the superior region of the thorax the borders of the pleural sacs and those of the lungs do not coincide b) projection of the costodiaphragmatic recesses entirely coincides with the inferior margin of the lungs c) not all the pulmonary segments are projected on the thorax d) in inspiration the inferior margin of the left lung on the medioclavicular line attains the Xth rib none of the mentioned above affirmations is correct 103. MC Pleura: a) represents a serous membrane b) it is lined with a layer of mesothelial cells c) two pleural sacs are distinguished – the right and the left one d) pleura consists of visceral and mediastinal layers e) none of the mentioned above affirmations is correct 104. MC The visceral layer of the pleura:
a) it lines outside the lungs b) enters into the fissures and separates the pulmonary lobes c) does not have connections with the stroma of the lungs d) contributes to the production (secretion) of the plural fluid e) none of the mentioned above affirmations is correct
105. MC Visceral pleura:
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
a) it adheres to the surface of the lung b) does not enter into the fissures of the lung c) below the pulmonary pedicle forms the pulmonary ligament, located in the frontal plan d) can be seen radiologically (on x-ray examination) e) none of the mentioned above affirmations is correct MC Parietal pleura: a) adheres to the subjacent thoracic structures b) under it is located endothoracic fascia c) it cannot be seen on radiograph d) forms pleural recessess e) none of the mentioned above affirmations is correct MC Parietal layer of the pleura: a) lines inside the thoracic walls b) represents an unique layer with the visceral one forming on each side a pleural sac c) it is divided into the costal, mediastinal and diaphragmatic parts d) forms the domus and pleural recessess e) does not contribute to resorption of the pleural fluid MC Mediastinal pleura: a) represents a part of the parietal pleura b) it is located in the saggital plan c) does not have relations with the mediastinum d) at the level of the pulmonary pedicle it continues with the visceral pleura e) adheres to the pericardium MC The pleural domus: a) covers the apex of the lung b) it is fixed by the costopleural and vertebropleural ligaments and by the scalenus minimus muscle c) in front it is located to 3-4cm higher than the first rib d) it comes in contact with the scalen muscles, subclavian artery, phrenic nerve, vagus nerve etc. e) can be palpated on alive MC Pleural recessess: a) they represent additional spaces of the pleural cavity b) they form when one part of the parietal pleura continues with another one c) the visceral pleura takes part in formation of the recessess d) the costodiaphragmatic recess is the deepest one, especially on the middle axillary line e) non of the mentioned above affirmations is correct
111. MC The pleura participates in breathing by means of:
a) pleural fluid due to the forces of the molecular adhesion b) visceral layer c) parietal layer d) passage of the lungs into the pleural recesses e) all mentioned above are false 112. MC In the superior mediastinum are located:
a) brachiocephalic veins b) superior vena cava c) aortic arch with its branches d) vagus nerves e) inferior vena cava
113. MC In the anterior mediastinum (PNA) are located:
a) branches of the internal thoracic artery b) pericardial ligaments c) descending aorta d) parasternal lymph nodes e) phrenic nerves 114. MC In the posterior mediastinum (PNA) are located:
a) azygos and hemiazygos veins b) descending aorta c) sympathetic chain d) heart and pericardium e) lymph thoracic duct 115. MC Middle mediastinum (PNA) includes:
a) esophagus b) heart with pericardium c) main bronchi d) pulmonary artery and pulmonary veins e) ascending aorta 116. MC Anterior mediastinum (BNA) includes:
a) heart and pericardium b) thymus c) phrenic nerve d) lymph thoracic duct e) components of the pulmonary pedicle 117. MC Posterior mediastinum (BNA) includes:
a) esophagus b) phrenic nerves c) thoracic aorta d) lymph thoracic duct e) superior vena cava 118. MC Regarding development of the respiratory organs:
a) the germ of the respiratory system appears as a ventral protrusion of the anterior wall of the foregut b) it develops from primary gut c) it starts at the end of the third week of embryonic life d) it starts at the end of the second month of embryonic life e) at the end of the first month in the surrounding mesoderm appears the germ of the cartilages of the larynx
) ) ) ) )
119. SC Interpleural (triangular) areas:
a) it is located between the mediastinal pleura b) on both sides they are located between the lines where the costal pleura continues with the mediastinal one c) three such areas are encountered – thymic, pericardiac and sternal one d) do not have clinical appliance e) non of the mentioned above affirmations is correct 120. CS The role of the pleura in breathing is:
to form a functional complex – lung – thoracic wall to maintain negative pressure within pleural cavity to remove the carbon dioxide to protect the pulmonary parenchyma all mentioned above are false 121. MC Regarding mediastinum:
a) represents a cavity that appears when all the organs located between the lungs are removed b) it is a region located between the thoracic segment of the vertebral column, sternum, diaphragm and mediastinal pleura c) represents a complex of anatomical structures located between the pleural sacs d) after PNA it is divided into five conventional compartments e) on alive person it can be examined by means of mediastinoscopy 122. MC Regarding division of the mediastinum (PNA):
a) superior mediastinum is separated from the inferior one by means of a horizontal plan, traced through the Louis angle and through the superior margin of the IVth thoracic vertebra b) anterior mediastinum contains all the structures that are located between the posterior surface of the sternum and anterior surface of the pericardium c) middle mediastinum is located between the precardiac plan and posterior surface of the pericardium d) posterior mediastinum contains all the structures located between the pericardium and vertebral column e) anterior mediastinum, middle and posterior one are compartments of the inferior mediastinum
IV. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM TESTS
1.
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4.
5.
Heart CS Heart develops from: a) ectoderm b) primary gut c) endoderm d) somites e) mesoderm CS On the posterior wall of the right atrium there is: a) right atrioventricular orifice b) right atrioauricular orifice c) terminal crest d) intervenos tubercle (of Lower) e) none of the mentioned above CS On the face of interatrial septum, oriented to the left atrium there is: a) an oval depression, which corresponds to the oval fossa b) oval fossa limbus (Vieussens ring) c) semilunar fold (valvula foraminis ovalis Parchappe) d) preseptal fossa e) none of the mentioned CS The papillary muscles: a) are rudimentary formations b) they contribute to closing the atrioventricular valves c) they open the atrioventricular valves during diastole d) they always straine the tendinous threads (chordae tendineae) e) all false CS Usually the apex of the heart projects a) at the level of the V rib on the medioclavicular line b) at the level of the xiphoid process of the sternum, 1.5 finger widths to the left c) in the III intercostal space, 1.5 cm medially of the left medioclavicular line d) in the V intercostal space on the left medioclavicular line e) all false
6.
CS Mitral valve auscultation sounds are heard more distinctly: a) in the II intercostal space to the left of sternum b) in the V intercostal space to the left of sternum c) in the V intercostal space on the left medioclavicular line d) in the V intercostal space to the right of sternum e) all false
7.
CS Heart volume increases by 60-70% at the age of: a) 5 years b) 10 years c) 20 - 24 years d) 7 - 14 years e) 14-18 years
8.
CM Three main stages can be distinguished during the heart development: a) completion of atria b) formation of arterial tube, caudal displacement and rotation c) completion of septa d) formation of cavities e) completion of valves
9.
CM The heart shape depends on: a) abdominal pressure b) age c) the position of the heart d) gender e) constitutional type
10.
CM Anterior (or sternocostal) surface of the heart, in its anatomical position, is formed by: a) left ventricle (in bulk) b) right atrium c) left auricula d) right ventricle e) pulmonary veins
11.
CM The right atrium: a) forms the most part of the anterior surface of the heart b) it is located in front of the right pulmonary veins c) in its wall the sinatrial node is located d) it contains the papillary muscle e) it receives the venae cavae
12.
CM Topography of the heart depends on: a) age b) gender c) position d) dimensions e) constitutional type
13.
CM Regarding the cardiac wall structure: a) the thickest layer of the cardiac wall is the myocardium b) myocardium of atria consists of three layers, myocardium of ventricles consists of two layers c) endocardium is the internal layer d) pericardium covers the heart from exterior e) cusps are folds formed by epicardium
14.
CM Celluloadipose tissue of the heart is distributed: a) in the coronary groove b) on the posterior surface of the left ventricle c) in the interventricular groove d) in the cardiac apex notch e) on the anterior surface of the right ventricle
15.
CM Right atrioventricular valve: a) has three cusps – anterior, posterior and septal b) it is equipped with three papillary muscles c) it is attached to the right atrioventricular ostium d) cusps are formed mostly by the duble layer of epicardium e) right atrium communicates with the ventricle through it
16.
CM Mitral valve: a) is equipped with two cusps – anterior and posterior b) each cusp is related to both papillary muscles - anterior and posterior c) it projecs in the left III intercostal space, near the sternum d) mitral auscultation point is situated in the left V intercostal space, 8-9 cm laterally of the mediosternal line e) none of the mentioned above
17.
CM Regarding the right atrium: a) its anterior wall is rough, posterior one is smooth b) auricular wall is smooth c) opening of the superior vena cava is equipped with a valvule d) coronary sinus opens on the the posterior wall e) oval fossa can be seen below the coronary sinus orifice
18.
CM On the posterior wall of the left atrium there are: a) orifice of the inferior vena cava b) orifices of the pulmonary veins c) coronary sinus orifice d) oval fossa e) left atrioventricular orifice (or ostium)
19.
CM On the interatrial septum surface, facing to the right atrium, can be observed: a) oval fossa b) limbus of the oval fossa (of Vieussens) c) intervenous tubercle (of Lower) d) preseptal fossa e) a depressed area corresponding to the oval fossa
20.
CM Regarding the fetal heart: a) right atrium partly develops from the right horn of venous sinus b) coronary sinus develops from the left common cardinal vein c) oval foramen is a reminiscent of a foramen of the primary septum d) wall of the left ventricule is thicker than the wall of right one e) blood pressure in the right atrium is greater than that of the left atrium
21.
CM Regarding the projection of the heart: a) normaly the apex beat can be palpated in the V intercostal space at a distance of 9 cm to the left of the mediosternal line b) superior border of the cardiac projection passes on a level with the inferior margin of the III costal cartilages c) right border of the heart passes 2-3 cm to the right of the right sternal border between the III and V costal cartilages d) the apex lies 1-2 cm medially to the left medioclavicular line in the VI intercostal space e) inferior border of the heart coincides with a line drawn through both V intercostal spaces
22.
CM Morpho-functional complex that regulates blood flow of the heart in one direction consists of: a) aorta b) valves c) tendinous threads d) papillary muscle e) fibrous rings
23.
CM The shapes of the heart are, as follows: a) rhomboid b) oval c) spheroid d) cor pendulum e) conical
24.
Pericardum CS Transverse sinus of the pericardium is the space bordered by: a) inferior vena cava and left pulmonary veins b) aorta and pulmonary trunk, and anterior wall of the atria c) right pulmonary veins and superior vena cava d) superior and inferior venae cavae e) pulmonary trunk and posterior wall of the atria
25.
CS Oblique sinus of the pericardium is located between: a) aorta and pulmonary trunk b) inferior vena cava and left pulmonary veins c) right pulmonary veins and superior vena cava d) superior and inferior venae cavae e) pulmonary trunk and posterior wall of the atria
26.
CM The fibrous pericardium: a) adheres closely to the tendinous center of the diaphragm b) it is separated from the sternum by adipose tissue c) in the region of large blood vessels it continues with their adventitia d) it is covered from interior by parietal layer of the endocardium e) it is a part of the serous tunic
27.
CM Regarding the serous pericardium: a) it consists of two layers - parietal and visceral b) its visceral layer is the epicardium c) it produces the pericardial fluid d) it is fixed to the sternum by the sternopericardial ligaments e) all answers are false
28.
CM Regarding the pericardial cavity: a) it is bordered by the parietal and visceral layers of serous pericardium b) it is a capillary space c) it contains a small amount of serous fluid d) it formes transverse, oblique and interauricular sinuses e) it communicates with pleural cavity through the perivascular spaces
29.
CM Regarding the transverse sinus of the pericardium: a) it is a narrow space located around the vascular pedicle of the heart b) externally it is bounded by the parietal layer of serous pericardium c) internally it is bounded inside by the visceral layer of serous pericardium covering the ascending aorta, pulmonary trunk, superior vena cava and right atrium d) it communicates with the coronary sinus e) it can be surounded by the index finger.
30.
CM Regarding the oblique sinus of the pericardium: a) it is located under the diaphragmatic surface of the heart b) to be demonstrated the heart apex should be rised and turned to the right c) from the right it is limited by the inferior vena cava, and from the left - by the pulmonary veins d) its anterior wall is formed by the posterior wall of the right atrium e) posteriorly it is bounded by the parietal layer of serous pericardium
V. URINARY SYSTEM TESTS
Generalities 1.
SC Kidneys develop from: a) proenteron b) ectoderm c) endoderm d) metenteron e) nephrotome
2.
SC The nephron starts to function from week of: a) the 8th b) the 9th c) the 4th d) the 7th e) the 5th
3.
MC Key moments in the development of kidney: a) rotation of kidney b) formation of arterial system and its report with the renal tubules - determination of canaliculo-vascular system c) separation of kidneys from seminiferous ways and genital glands d) ascent of kidney e) separation of urinary tract from cloaca
4.
MC Regarding the kidneys development: a) they develop from mesonephros b) initially they appear at the lumbar vertebra I c) they contain epithelial elements derived from endoderm d) they do not function during intrauterine life e) they start to develop during the II month of intrauterine life
5.
MC Stages of the kidneys development: a) retronephros b) pronephros c) antinephros d) mesonephros e) metanephros
6.
MC After developing of metanephros follows: a) descent of kidneys b) ascent of kidneys c) lateral displacement of kidneys d) moving to the back of kidneys e) rotation of kidneys
7.
MC Urinary bladder develops from: a) cloaca b) metenteron c) urogenital sinus d) metanephros e) alantois
8.
MC Factors contributing to kidney ascent and rotation: a) disproportion growth of the kidney in comparison with lumbar region of the trunk b) development of the intestine c) development of the diaphragm d) intra-abdominal pressure e) recovery of embryonic arcade
9.
MC Classification of developmental abnormalities of the kidney depends on: a) shape b) structure c) septation d) number e) position
10.
MC Mesonephric (Wolffian) duct: a) provides material for kidney development b) it derives from mesoderm c) it participates in the formation of bladder d) it gives rise to the seminal vesicles e) in female it disappears completely
11.
The kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder SC Process underlying the formation of primary urine: a) ultrafiltration b) reabsorbtion c) metabolic d) changes of blood pressure e) changes of intra-abdominal pressure
12.
SC Renal hilum is located: a) in the middle of the lateral margin b) on the anterior surface c) at the upper and lower poles d) on the posterior surface e) in the middle of the medial margin.
13.
SC Position of the kidney towards the peritoneum: a) intraperitoneal position b) in the peritoneal cavity
c) mesoperitoneal position d) extraperitoneal position e) retroperitoneal position 14.
SC Skeletopy of the upper pole of the left kidney: a) upper edge of the vertebrae TXI b) lower edge of the vertebra TXI c) body of the vertebra TXII d) middle of the vertebra TXI e) middle of the vertebrae LI
15.
SC Skeletopy of the upper pole of the right kidney: a) upper edge of the vertebrae TXI b) middle of the vertebrae TXI c) middle of the vertebrae TXII d) middle of the vertebrae LI e) lower edge of the vertebra TXI
16.
SC Skeletopy the lower pole of the left kidney: a) vertebra LII b) lower edge of the vertebra LIII c) upper edge of the vertebra LIV d) upper edge of the vertebra LIII e) middle of the vertebra LIII
17.
SC Skeletopy the lower pole of the right kidney: a) lower edge of the vertebra LII b) upper edge of the vertebra LIII c) middle of the vertebra LIII d) upper edge of the vertebra LII e) lower edge of the vertebra LIII
18.
SC Report of the left kidney with the XII rib: a) the XII rib intersects the posterior surface of kidney in the middle b) the XII rib intersects the posterior surface close to the upper third c) the XII rib intersects the posterior surface close to the lower third d) the XII rib does not intersect the kidney e) the XII rib intersects the posterior surface of the upper pole
19.
SC Report of the right kidney with the XII rib: a) the XII rib intersects the lower third of kidney b) the XII rib does not come in contact with the right kidney c) the XII rib intersects the inferior pole d) the XII rib intersects the upper pole e) the XII rib intersects the middle of the posterior surface
20.
SC Adipose capsule passes through the renal hilum into the: a) renal pyramids b) renal fascia c) renal medulla d) renal cortex e) renal sinus
21.
SC Pararenal adipose body is located: a) on the anterior surface of the kidney b) on the upper pole of the kidney c) in the renal hilum d) on the posterior surface of the kidney e) on the inferior pole of the kidney
22.
SC The kidney is an organ: a) tubular b) glandular c) parenchymatous d) cavitary e) mixed
23.
MC Kidney`s structural elements are: a) mucous tunic b) adrenal sinus c) renal sinus d) muscular tunic e) renal parenchyma
24.
SC Superficial layer of the renal parenchyma is given by: a) adipose capsule b) renal fascia c) renal cortex d) serous tunic e) renal medulla
25.
SC Morphofunctional unit of the kidney is: a) renal lobe b) renal segment c) renal lobule d) renal corpuscle e) nephron
26.
SC Deep layer of the renal parenchyma is represented by: a) renal cortex b) visceral peritoneum c) serous capsule d) renal medulla e) fibrous capsule
27.
SC The sectors between the renal medulla are represented by: a) radiated portion b) minor calyces c) renal columns d) renal septa e) convoluted portion
28.
SC Cribriform area is located: a) in the radiated portion b) in the renal columns c) in the renal pyramids
d) at the bottom of the renal pyramid e) at the top of the renal pyramid 29.
SC Where is the primary urine formed: a) in the glomerulus b) in the renal tubules c) in the glomerular capsule d) in the renal corpuscles e) at the level of Henle`s loops
30.
SC Morphofunctional unit of the kidney is: a) renal corpuscles b) renal segment c) renal lobule d) nephron e) renal lobe
31.
SC All items listed below are parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus, EXCEPT: a) macula densa b) lax macula c) polar cushion cells d) extraglomerular mesangial cells e) epithelioid cells of the afferent arteriole.
32.
SC A renal lobe includes: a) a renal pyramid and major calyces b) a renal pyramid and renal sinus c) a renal pyramid with radiated portion of the kidney d) a renal pyramid and minor calyces e) a renal pyramid with adjacent renal cortex.
33.
SC Cortical lobule consists of: a) radiated portion b) convoluted portion c) radiated and convoluted portions d) renal columns e) renal pyramids
34.
SC Nephrons are located: a) in the renal pyramids b) only in the renal cortex c) only in the renal medulla d) in the renal cortex and medulla e) in the renal sinus
35.
SC Renal pelvis is formed by the union of: a) two major calyces with a minor one b) 5 - 6 minor renal calyces c) two minor calyces with a major one d) 2 - 3 minor renal calyces e) 2 - 3 major renal calyces
36.
SC External lobular structure of the kidney is kept to age: a) newborn b) 7 years c) puberty d) 22 - 25 years e) 2 - 3 years
37.
SC Renal pedicle is relatively long at the age of: a) 7 years b) 2 - 3 years c) newborn d) puberty e) adolescence
38.
SC Systole and diastole of the urinary tract (calyces-ureter) may be examined by: a) angiography b) CT c) sonography d) radioscopy e) ureteroscopy
39.
MC Secretory and excretory processes occurring in the kidney may be examined by: a) urography b) cystography c) pneumoperitoneum d) sonography e) scintigraphy
40.
SC In relation to the peritoneum the ureter is located: a) extraperitoneally b) in the peritoneal cavity c) mesoperitoneally d) intraperitoneally e) retroperitoneally
41.
SC Urinary bladder is located in: a) the cavity of greater pelvis b) the cavity of lesser pelvis c) the abdominal cavity d) the right iliac fossa e) the pubic region
42.
SC In male the apex of the urinary bladder comes in contact with: a) sigmoid colon b) upper part of rectum c) seminal vesicles
d) loops of small intestine e) anterior abdominal wall 43.
SC In female the posterior surface of the urinary bladder comes in contact with: a) upper part of rectum b) ovaries c) coecum d) sigmoid colon e) uterus
44.
SC In relation to the peritoneum the full urinary bladder is located: a) intraperitoneally b) in the peritoneal cavity c) extraperitoneally d) retroperitoneally e) mesoperitoneally
45.
SC In relation to the peritoneum the empty urinary bladder is located: a) in the peritoneal cavity b) extraperitoneally c) retroperitoneally d) mesoperitoneally e) intraperitoneally
46.
SC Mucous tunic of the bladder adheres intimately to the muscular tunic at the level of: a) apex b) anterior wall c) neck (or cervix) d) bladder trigone e) body
47.
SC Submucosa of the urinary bladder is missing in the following region: a) body b) neck c) fundus d) apex e) bladder trigone
48.
SC Urinary bladder sphincter consists of: a) outer layer of muscular tunic b) middle layer of muscular tunic c) intermediate layer of muscular tunic d) inner layer of muscular tunic e) oblique layer of muscular tunic
49.
SC The shape of newborn`s bladder is, as follows: a) cylindrical b) conical c) oval d) spheroid e) fusiform (or spindle-shaped)
50.
SC The shape of infant`s bladder is, as follows: a) fusiform (or spindle-shaped) b) piriform (or pear-shaped) c) conical d) oval e) cylindrical
51.
SC Uvula of urinary bladder is located: a) near the left ureteral orifice b) near the internal urethral orifice c) near the right ureteral orifice d) at the level of the orifices of both ureters e) at the base of the bladder trigone
52.
MC Note the order of tunics which will be pierced by the needle of syringe in case of puncture of the urinary bladder: a) peritoneum b) fibrous tunic c) mucous tunic d) submucosa e) muscular tunic
53.
SC Urethra: a) has a length of about 16 cm in male and 4 cm in female b) its lumen is larger in male c) female urethra has two curvatures and three portions d) length of male urethra is variable and depends on the condition of the penis (soft or erect) e) male urethra is straight
54.
SC The following urethral sphincter is voluntary: a) intermediate b) internal c) external d) glandopenian e) intravesical
55.
SC Male urethra has the following function: a) erectile b) discharge of urine and semen c) discharge of urine and ejaculatory d) to avoid urinary reflux e) relaxation of corpora cavernosa
56.
MC Kidney`s functions are, as follows: a) formation of urine b) discharge of urine c) storage of urine d) thermoregulatory e) endocrine
57.
MC Kidneys have: a) two surfaces - anterior and posterior
b) two margins - lateral and medial c) two poles (or extremities) - superior and inferior d) a renal sinus e) they are red-brown 5 raspunsuri corecte - prea mult 58.
MC Kidneys are maintained in their position by: a) renal bed b) renal pedicle c) renal fascia d) peritoneal ligaments e) intra-abdominal pressure
59.
MC To find the anatomical position of the kidneys the following elements will be taken into account: a) anterior and posterior surfaces b) medial and lateral margins c) superior and inferior poles (or extremities) d) order in which the elements of renal pedicle are located e) dimensions of lips of the renal sinus din nou 5 raspunsuri corecte
60.
MC Regarding the kidneys` relations with ribs: a) the superior extremities of both kidneys are located at the level of the XI rib b) the XII rib projects on the posterior surface of the left kidney approximately at midway distance between two extremities c) the XII rib projects on the posterior surface of the right kidney closer to the superior extremity d) the relations of the kidneys with ribs my vary by age, gender, constitutional type etc. e) no correct statements
61.
MC Kidney capsules are, as follows: a) adventitia b) fibrous c) adipose d) renal fascia e) mucous
62.
MC The following elements enter into the kidney through the renal hilum: a) renal vein b) renal artery c) nerves d) ureter e) lymphatic vessels
63.
MC The following elements leave the kidney through the renal hilum: a) lymphatic vessels b) renal artery c) ureter d) nerves e) renal vein
64.
MC Regarding the renal pedicle: a) it projects at the level of horizontal line, drawn through the disc between the XII thoracic and the I lumbar vertebrae
b) it consists of artery, vein, renal pelvis, lymph vessels and renal nerve plexus c) at the level of hilum the renal pelvis occupies the posterior position, renal vein – the anterior position (in most cases) d) vein of the left renal pedicle is shorter, and artery is longer e) floating kidney has an elongated renal pedicle 65.
MC Fixation apparatus of the kidney comprises: a) renal bed b) crura of diaphragm c) renal pedicle d) intra-abdominal pressure e) renal capsules
66.
MC The following structures are located in front of the right kidney, except: a) right lobe of the liver b) descending portion of the duodenum c) hepatic flexure d) small intestine loops e) head of the pancreas
67.
MC Elements of renal pedicle are, as follows: a) renal pelvis b) renal vein c) renal artery d) renal fascia e) ureter
68.
MC The kidneys have: a) anterior pole b) superior pole c) inferior pole d) posterior pole e) medial pole
69.
MC The following surfaces are described in the kidneys: a) anterior b) medial c) lateral d) posterior e) superior
70.
MC The following structures are located in the renal sinus: a) renal pelvis b) renal pyramids c) minor renal calyces d) renal columns e) major renal calyces
71.
MC Left kidney: a) has a lower position than the right one b) on the anterior abdominal wall it projects in the epigastric and left lateral abdominal regions c) it has a longer renal vein than the right kidney
d) its lateral border has relations with the spleen and descending colon e) frequently it is more movable than the right one 72.
MC The anterior surface of the left kidney comes in contact with: a) renal face of the spleen b) posterior surface and greater curvature of the stomach c) body of the pancreas d) splenic artery and vein e) transverse colon and left colic flexure
73.
MC Right kidney: a) projects on the anterior abdominal wall in the epigastric, umbilical and right lateral abdominal regions b) posteriorly it comes in contact with the diaphragm, and psoas major and quardatus lomborum muscles c) renal hilum is located at the level of the vertebra LII d) its anterior surface is separated from the duodenum by means of a layer of the peritoneum e) inferior pole descent till the horizontal line, drawn through the iliac crests
74.
MC In the right renal sinus the following formations can be found: a) renal pelvis b) minor renal calyces c) segmental branches of the renal artery d) renal vein e) ureter
75.
MC The following formations are located in front of the right kidney, except: a) descending part of the duodenum b) right colic flexure c) visceral surface of the liver d) posterior surface of the liver e) head of the pancreas
76.
MC Adipose capsule of the kidney is well developed: a) at the level of the hilum b) at the level of the inferior pole c) on the anterior surface d) on the posterior surface e) at the level of the superior pole
77.
MC Muscular renal bed is formed by: a) m. iliacus b) m. quadratus lumborum c) m. quadratus femuris d) m. obturatorius internus e) m. psoas major
78.
MC Right kidney comes in contact with: a) right colic flexure b) liver c) ascending part of the duodenum d) descending part of the duodenum
e) pancreas 79.
MC Left kidney comes in contact with: a) liver b) stomach c) duodenum d) pancreas e) spleen
80.
MC Left kidney comes in contact with: a) sigmoid colon b) small intestine loops c) descending colon d) left colic flexure e) spleen
81.
MC The following structures are distinguished on the frontal cross-section of the kidney: a) fibrous capsule b) renal parenchyma c) renal segments d) renal papillae e) intermediate calyces
82.
MC Lobular kidney can be found: a) in male b) in female c) in newborn d) in foetus e) only in some animals
83.
MC The following structures are located in the radiated portion: a) renal corpuscles b) nephron c) minor renal calyces d) initial portions of the renal collecting ducts e) straight renal tubules
84.
MC Renal cortex contains: a) renal septa b) papillary ducts c) radiated portion d) minor renal calyces e) convoluted portion
85.
MC Renal pyramid consists of: a) renal collecting ducts b) papillary ducts c) convoluted renal tubules d) straight renal tubules e) loops of Henle
86.
MC Nephron consists of: a) collecting duct b) renal corpuscle c) proximal, intermediate and distal segments of the renal tubule d) fornical apparatus e) papillary duct
87.
MC The components of the nephron are, as follows: a) renal corpuscle (of Malpighi) b) proximal, intermediate and distal segments of the renal tubule c) collecting duct d) papillary duct e) blood and lymph vessels that supply the items listed above
88.
SC Juxtamedullary nephrons: a) are the most numerous b) they are located in the renal medulla c) they have larger sizes d) they form the renal columns (of Bertini) e) all false
89.
MC The following structure are located in the pars convoluta: a) proximal and distal convoluted tubules b) straight renal tubules c) renal collecting ducts d) Henle`s loop e) renal corpuscles
90.
MC Renal corpuscle consists of: a) glomerular capsule b) peritubular capillary network c) renal tubule d) Henle`s loop e) glomerulus
91.
MC Juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney comprises: a) macula densa b) agranular and granular cells of the vascular hilum of the glomerulus c) cells of the glomerular capsule d) epithelioid cells, located in the wall of the efferent arteriole e) agranular and granular epithelioid cells, located in the wall of the afferent arteriole
92.
MC Juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney produces: a) parotin b) adrenalin c) insulin
d) renin e) erythropoietin 93.
MC Select the kidney three main functions: a) metabolism b) regulation of homeostasis c) reproductive d) endocrine e) trophic
94.
MC Kidney is divided into the following segments: a) anterior inferior b) inferior c) posterior inferior d) anterior superior e) superior
95.
MC Variants of the constitution of the renal pelvis: a) mature b) pubertal c) embryonal d) prepubertal e) fetal
96.
MC The shape of renal pelvis could be: a) ampullar b) cylindrical c) arborescent (as a tree) d) conical e) mixed
97.
MC Walls of renal pelvis and renal calyces consist of: a) adventitia b) submucosa c) muscular tunic d) serous tunic e) mucous tunic
98.
MC The role of fornical apparatus of the kidney: a) filtration of urine b) regulation of urine output from the renal tubules into the minor renal calyces c) formation of urine d) regulation of the pressure inside of the renal pelvis e) prevention of reflux of the urine
99.
MC Minor renal calyces consist of: a) ampulla b) fornix c) infundibulum d) body e) neck
100. MC Fornical apparatus of the kidney consists of: a) m. sphincter fornicis b) m. longitudinalis calicis c) m. longitudinalis fornicis d) m. sphincter calicis e) m. levator fornicis 101. MC Holotopy of the right kidney: a) right lateral abdominal region b) right inguinal region c) epigastric region d) right hypochondriac region e) umbilical region 102. MC Holotopy of the left kidney: a) umbilical region b) left hypochondriac region c) epigastric region d) left inguinal region e) left lateral abdominal region 103. MC Renal dystopia: a) thoracic b) femoral c) sacral d) pelvic e) iliac 104. MC Structural abnormalities of the kidney: a) polymegacalyces b) polycystic kidney c) bifurcated kidney d) lobular kidney e) renal aplasia
105. MC The following processes occur during the evacuation of urine through the calyces, pelvis and ureters: a) systole b) displacement of the ureters c) urinary bladder muscle contraction d) peristaltic e) diastole 106. MC Ureters: a) have a length of 30-35 cm b) they have four parts and three constrictions c) in the pelvic cavity they are located in front of the internal iliac artery d) in female the pelvic part passes laterally to the uterine cervix e) they come in relation with the inferior vena cava 107. MC Parts of the ureters are, as follows: a) intramural b) abdominal c) suprapelvic d) pelvic e) intravesical 108. MC In female the left ureter: a) adheres closely to the peritoneum which covers it in front b) its abdominal part (lumbar segment) is crossed by ovarian vessels c) its pelvic part (visceral segment) is located at the base of broad ligament and comes in contact with uterine artery d) before opening in the urinary bladder it passes in front of vagina e) it is longer than the right one 109. MC In male the right ureter: a) its pelvic part (parietal segment) comes in contact with internal iliac vein b) it is located in front of internal iliac artery c) its visceral segment passes behind of the ductus deferens, between rectum and urinary bladder d) it can be explored by rectal examination e) it is located 2.5 cm laterally of promontory 110. MC Constrictions of the ureters are, as follows: a) at the level where the ureter enters into the bladder b) between the renal pelvis and ureter c) pelvic part of ureter d) at the intersection with the terminal line of pelvis e) between the abdominal and pelvic parts of the ureter
111. MC The wall of the ureter consists of the following coats (or tunics): a) serous b) adventitia c) muscular d) submucosa e) mucous 112. MC Orifices that open into the urinary bladder are, as follows: a) ejaculatory duct orifice b) orifice of excretory duct of the seminal vesicle c) orifices of ureters d) orifice of ductus deferens e) internal urethral orifice 113. MC Elements that prevent reflux of urine are, as follows: a) oblique opening of the ureters into the urinary bladder b) intravesical part of the ureters c) fornical apparatus d) fixation apparatus of the kidneys e) ureters sphincters 114. MC Ureters can be explored by: a) ureteropielography b) cystography c) urotomography d) angiography e) retrograde ureterography 115. MC Urinary bladder: a) develops from allantois, caudal segments of mesonephric ducts and urogenital sinus b) its mucosa is lined with transitional epithelium c) in front it is covered almost entirely with peritoneum d) it can be explored by cystoscopy e) in female it has a smaller capacity than in male 116. MC Parts of urinary bladder are, as follows: a) fundus b) cervix c) head d) superior bladder neck e) apex
117. MC Sintopy of urinary bladder in male: a) ampullae of ductus deferens b) rectum c) sigmoid colon d) seminal vesicles e) prostate 118. MC Sintopy of urinary bladder in female: a) uterine cervix b) vagina c) sigmoid colon d) rectum e) urogenital diaphragm 119. MC Regarding the relations of urinary bladder in male: a) posterior surface (posterior - superior) is oriented to the rectovesical pouch (or excavation) and comes in contact with rectum, ileal loops, sigmoid colon and often with vermiform appendix b) anterior surface comes in contact with the pubic symphysis c) fundus comes in contact with prostate, seminal vesicles, ampullae of ductus deferens d) lateral borders come in contact with inferior epigastric vessels e) all false 120. MC Regarding the relations of urinary bladder in female: a) posterior -superior surface is oriented to the vesicouterine pouch (or excavation) and comes in contact with uterus, small intestine loops, sigmoid colon b) anterior surface comes in contact with the cellulo-adipose tissue, blood vessels and nerves of the prevesical space c) fundus comes in contact with uterine cervix, anterior wall of vagina, urogenital diaphragm d) lateral surfaces come in contact with m. levator ani e) all false 121. MC Fixation apparatus of the urinary bladder in male is represented by: a) pubovesical muscle b) pubovesical ligament c) rectovesical muscle d) urogenital diaphragm e) puboprostatic ligament 122. MC Urinary bladder is fixed by: a) perineum (in male by means of prostate, in female - directly) b) umbilical ligaments c) pubovesical ligaments (in female) and puboprostatic ligaments (in male) d) rectovesical muscle (in male) or vesicouterin muscle (in female) e) intra-abdominal pressure 123. CM Fixation apparatus of the urinary bladder in female includes: a) pubovesical ligament b) puboprostatic ligament c) pubovesical muscle d) rectovesical muscle e) urogenital diaphragm
124. MC The urinary bladder wall is composed of: a) mucous coat b) muscular coat c) adipose coat d) submucosa e) fibroserous coat 125. MC The urinary bladder sphincter is located in the region of: a) neck (or cervix) b) initial part of urethra c) fundus d) base of bladder trigone e) body 126. MC Paraclinical methods of examination of the urinary bladder are, as follows: a) diaphanoscopy b) vesical catheterization c) pielography d) cystoscopy e) laparoscopy 127. MC Bladder (or vesical) trigone of Lieutaud: a) develops from endoderm b) it represent a part of fundus of bladder (the least movable segment of the bladder) c) its mucosa is darker and forms transverse folds d) its borders are almost equal e) its angles are marked by the ostium urethrae internum and ostia ureterica 128. SC M. detrusor vesicae represents: a) circular layer of muscular tunic b) longitudinal layers of muscular tunic c) circular layer of muscular tunic except m. sphincter vesicae d) all components of muscular tunic except m. sphincter vesicae e) all the muscular coat 129. MC Male urethra presents the following parts: a) vesical, preprostatic, prostatic and postprostatic b) intramural (preprostatic), prostatic, membranous and spongy c) anterior (penile) and posterior (pelvic) d) fixed and mobile e) wide and narrow
130. SC Urethral lumen: a) shows no gender features b) in female it contains seminal colliculus c) in male it is uniform d) during micturition in female it presents four constrictions and three dilatations e) all false. 131. MC Constrictions of male urethra are, as follows: a) external urethral ostium b) at the level of spongy part c) at the level of glans penis d) internal urethral ostium e) membranous part 132. MC Dilatations of male urethra are, as follows: a) membranous part b) at the level of penile bulb c) internal urethral ostium d) navicular fossa e) at the level of prostatic part 133. MC Male urethra curvatures are, as follows: a) intrapelvic b) glandopenile c) penile d) posterior e) anterior 134. SC The most vulnerable part of male urethra is: a) intramural part b) immediately after passing through the urogenital diaphragm till the penile bulb c) navicular fossa d) spongy part e) prostate portion 135. MC On the path of male urethra there are the following sphincters: a) internal urethral sphincter b) intermediate urethral sphincter c) bulbopenian sphincter d) external urethral sphincter e) spongy sphincter
136. MC The wall of the urethra contains the following coats: a) mucous b) epithelial c) muscular d) submucosa e) adventitia 137. MC The following ducts open into the lumen of male urethra: a) ductus deferens b) ducts of Littre`s glands c) ducts of Cowper`s glands d) ducts of Bartholin`s glands e) ejaculatory duct 138. MC Female urethra: a) describes two curves b) its mucosa forms the urethral crest c) its mucosa contains urethral lacunae d) it opens into the vulva, immediately above the clitoris e) in a living person can be palpated by vaginal examination 139. MC During the development of urethra the following abnormalities may occur: a) ectopia b) epispadias c) hypospadias (glandular, penile, perineal) d) double urethra e) stenosis
VI. THE GENITAL SYSTEM (REPRODUCTIVE ORGANS) TESTS
1.
2.
Generalities CM Periods of development of the genital organs are the following: a) male b) female c) indifferent d) urogenital e) differentiation The male genital organs CS Which male genital organs have parenchymal structure: a) spermatic cord b) seminal vesicles c) bulbourethral glands d) testicle e) prostate
3.
CM Tubular structure have the next male genitalia: a) testicle b) prostate c) testicular appendix d) bulbourethral glands e) vas deferens
4.
CS Testicular appendix is located on: a) the inferior end b) the medial margin c) the medial surface d) the superior end e) the posterior margin
5.
CS Externally testicular parenchyma is covered by: a) serous tunic b) internal spermatic fascia c) tunica albuginea d) external spermatic fascia e) cremaster fascia
6.
CS Testicular parenchyma consists of: a) efferent ductules b) aberrant ductules c) tunica albuginea d) lobules of epididymis e) convoluted seminiferous tubules
7.
CS Mediastinum of testis is located on: a) anterior border b) anterior surface c) posterior border d) lateral surface e) medial surface
8.
CS Testicular lobule consists of: a) rete testis b) 5-6 efferent ductules c) 10 aberrant ductules d) 15-20 convoluted seminiferous tubules e) 2-3 convoluted seminiferous tubules
9.
CS Pathway of sperm (semen-conveying ducts) starts with: a) convoluted seminiferous tubules b) straight seminiferous tubules c) testicular network d) efferent ducts e) duct of epididymis
10.
CS What start from testicular network: a) straight seminiferous tubules b) efferent ductules c) afferent seminiferous tubules d) convoluted seminiferous tubules e) duct of epididymis
11.
CS Sperm cells are produced by: a) straight seminiferous tubules b) rete testis c) efferent ductules d) afferent ductules e) convoluted seminiferous tubules
12.
CS Paradoxical ectopia is the situation when both testicles are: a) in the inguinal canal b) at the level of the perineum c) in the abdominal cavity d) in the pelvic cavity e) in a single chamber of the scrotum
13.
CS Spermatic pathways begin with: a) convoluted seminiferous tubules b) straight seminiferous tubules c) testicular network d) efferent ducts e) duct of epididymis
14.
CM The spermatic cord has following components: a) testicular artery b) lacunar muscle c) pampiniform plexus d) lymphatic vessels e) pterygoid plexus
15.
CS The seminal vesicles are located: a) in the iliac fossa b) retrocecal c) retrorectal d) in the cavity of greater pelvis e) in the pelvic cavity
16.
CS Ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of: a) duct of epididymis with vas deferens b) excretory duct with the efferent ducts c) excretory duct with the afferent ducts d) excretory duct with duct of prostate e) excretory duct with vas deferens
17.
CS Ejaculatory duct opens into: a) prostate b) membranous part of the urethra c) seminal vesicles d) the prostatic part of the urethra e) urinary bladder
18.
CS The prostate is an organ: a) glandular b) muscular c) cavitary d) tubular e) musculoglandular
19.
CS Glandular parenchyma of the prostate begins to develop in: a) period of puberty b) the period prior school c) sexual maturation d) early childhood e) adolescence
20.
CS The prostate is situated in: a) greater pelvis b) lesser pelvis c) retrocecal d) the right iliac fossa e) retrovesical
21.
CS What passes through the prostate: a) duct of epididymis b) excretory ducts of bulbourethral glands c) vas deferens d) prostatic part of the urethra e) excretory ducts
22.
CS Palpation of the prostate on alive person is done through: a) the urinary bladder b) the inguinal canal c) the rectum d) the scrotum e) the anterior wall of the abdominal cavity
23.
CS From which period of postnatal ontogenesis prostate activates as a gland: a) primary school b) sexual maturation c) early childhood d) maturity e) at puberty
24.
CS As a muscular organ the prostate acts until this period of postnatal development: a) early childhood b) sexual maturation c) primary school d) puberty e) maturity
25.
CS Glandular ducts of prostate in pair confluence continue in: a) excretory duct b) ejaculatory duct c) excretory ducts of the prostate d) urethra e) seminal colliculus
26.
CS The shape, size and consistency of the prostate can be assessed by: a) suprapubic palpation b) infrapubic palpation c) rectal palpation d) palpation trough the ischioanal fossa e) prostatography
27.
CS Bulbourethral glands are located: a) in the prostatic part of the urethra b) in the spongy part of the urethra c) in the membranous part of the urethra d) at the base of the prostate e) bilateral to the membranous part of the urethra
28.
CM The internal male genital organs include: a) scrotum b) bulbourethral glands c) penis d) prostate e) testicle
29.
CM Bulbouretral glands are placed in the depth of: a) the pelvic diaphragm b) the urogenital diaphragm c) the superficial transverse muscle of the perineum d) the bulbospongios muscle e) the deep transverse muscle of the perineum
30.
CS Excretory duct of the bulbourethral gland opens in: a) the prostate b) the seminal vesicles c) the prostatic part of the urethra d) the membranous part of the urethra e) the spongy part of the urethra at the level of bulbus penis
31.
CM Bulbouretral glands are located in: a) the urogenital diaphragm b) the pelvic diaphragm c) between the superior and inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm d) the visceral pelvic fascia e) the inferior fascia of pelvic diaphragm
32.
CS Sperm maturation takes place in: a) ductus deferens b) straight seminiferous tubules c) bulbourethral glands d) seminal vesicles e) epididymis
33.
CS The crura of the penis are inserted on: a) the pubic symphysis b) the superior rami of the ischial bones c) the inferior edge of the pubic symphysis d) the superior rami of the pubic bones e) the inferior rami of the pubic bones
34.
CS Bulb of the penis is formed by: a) right corpus cavernosum b) spongy body c) left corpus cavernosum d) crura of penis e) septum of penis 35.
CS Crura of the penis are formed by: a) tunica albuginea b) septum penis c) corpora cavernosa d) spongy body e) dorsal part of penis
36.
CS Prostatic utricle is located: a) in the membranous part of the urethra b) in the spongy part of the urethra c) the prostate d) in the ejaculatory duct e) on the seminal colliculus
37.
CS Seminal colliculus is located: a) at the base of the prostate b) in the spongy portion of the urethra c) in the membranous portion of the urethra d) in the prostatic part of the urethra e) in the prostate
38.
CS Voluntary urethral sphincter is located in: a) the bulb of penis b) membranous part of the urethra c) the prostatic part of the urethra d) spongy part of the urethra e) the glans penis
39.
CS Which coat of scrotum forms the septum scroti: a) internal spermatic fascia b) external spermatic fascia c) tunica vaginalis d) cremaster muscle e) tunica dartos
40.
CS Which coat of scrotum consists of two layers: a) cremaster fascia b) internal spermatic fascia c) external spermatic fascia d) tunica vaginalis e) tunica dartos
41.
CM The testicle: a) represents the male gonad b) it has a weight of 40-50 g c) it is a gland with double function d) it is not subject to change by age e) the right one has more weight and is located approximately 1 cm below CM The testicle: a) can be easily palpated b) it has a pliant, soft rubbery consistency and it is very sensitive c) it is bluish-white colored externally, but its parenchyma is reddish- yellow colored d) it is located in the scrotum and it is one of the external male genitalia e) it increases its size until the age of 20-22 years CM Anatomical position of the testis can be established by taking into account: a) the lateral and medial faces b) the upper and lower extremities c) the anterior and posterior edges d) the sinus (recess) of the epididymis e) the position of the epididymis CM Regarding the tunica albuginea: a) it is a formation that surrounds the testis parenchyma b) the mediastinum (body of Highmore) and septula testis are the derivatives of the tunica albuginea, which form the stroma of testis c) its thickness is about 500 mcm d) its external surface is rough e) its internal surface adheres intimate to the parenchyma
42.
43.
44.
45.
CS Regarding the development of the testicle: a) gonadal differentiation begins at the VII week of the embryonic development b) efferent ducts develop from mesonephric tubules c) appendix of the testis is derived from the cranial end of Müller's canal d) its tunica albuginea is derived from Wolff's canal e) testis descends into the scrotum during the VII month of intrauterine life
46.
CM Faces of the testis: a) anterior b) posterior c) medial d) superior e) lateral
47.
CM Borders of the testicle: a) posterior b) medial c) lateral d) inferior e) anterior
48.
CM Testicular functions: a) hematopoiesis b) regeneration c) ovulation d) generative e) endocrine
49.
CM The sperm is composed of: a) prostate secretion b) spermatozoa c) epididymis secretion d) straight seminiferous ducts secretion e) seminal vesicle secretion CM Abnormalities of the descent of the testis: a) retention (cryptorchism) b) ectopia c) visceroptosis d) monorhism e) poliorchism CM The retention (cryptorchism) could be: a) perineal b) femoral c) inguinal d) pubopenian e) abdominal
50.
51.
52.
53.
CM Factors that contribute to the testicular descent: a) pressure of the inguinal canal b) gubernaculul testis c) intensive development of the kidney d) the vaginal process e) the intraabdominal pressure CM Testicle could be examined by: a) diaphanoscopy b) colpography c) palpation d) pelviography e) sonography
54.
CM The parts of the vas deferens: a) inguinal b) muscular c) pelvic d) funicular e) testicular
55.
CM Ductus deferens: a) starts at the top of the testicle b) its preterminal part has a dilation called ampulla c) its terminal part narrows and joins the excretory duct of the seminal vesicle d) its walls are composed of serous, muscular and mucous coats e) can be explored by palpation and radiological examination
56.
CS Ductus deferens: a) has epididymal, funicular (scrotal and inguinal part) and abdomino-pelvic (abdominal and pelvic part) segments b) at the level of deep inguinal ring, funicular segment continues with the abdominal part c) pelvic part of abdomino-pelvic segment crosses the ureter d) it opens on the anterior wall of the prostatic part of the urethra e) ampulla of vas deferens can be explored by rectal palpation
57.
CM Vas deferens` tunics: a) muscular b) serous c) mucosa d) submucosal e) adventitia CM Spermatic cord can be palpated in: a) the suprapubic region b) the greater pelvis c) the inguinal canal d) the lesser pelvis e) the scrotum CM Spermatic cord: a) is a complex composed of several anatomical structures b) it extends from the superior end of the testicle to the deep inguinal ring c) at the both ends its elements are dispersed d) it is covered by tunica vaginalis e) can be explored by palpation
58.
59.
60.
61.
CM Seminal vesicles: a) there are two in number, they have a lobular structure and serve as a storage of sperm b) they are located just above the base of the prostate, between the urinary bladder and rectum c) they have a conical shape and consist of base, body and neck, which continues with the excretory duct d) they develop from Wolff's canal and are located intraperitoneally in the newborn e) they can be explored by rectal palpation CM Seminal vesicle`s tunics: a) muscular b) adventitia c) serous d) mucous e) submucosa
62.
CM Prostate: a) is a impar musculo-glandular organ weighing 20-25 g b) it is crossed by the urethra and ejaculatory ducts c) it consists of two lateral lobes, one in the middle and one posteriorly d) it contains periurethral glands and prostatic glands proper e) it develops from urethral epithelium during the course of formation
63.
CM Prostate has: a) body b) cervix c) base d) apex e) fundus
64.
CM The parts of the spermatic cord: a) scrotal b) inguinal c) prostatic d) pelvic e) epididimo-testicular
65.
CM Spermatic cord consists of: a) testicular artery b) pampiniform venous plexus c) artery of vas deferens d) vas deferens e) ejaculatory duct CM Prostate has relationships with: a) testes b) seminal vesicles c) epididymis d) rectum e) urinary bladder CM Prostate possess the following lobes: a) anterior b) right c) posterior d) medial e) left
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
CM Structure of the prostate: a) serous tunic b) capsule c) smooth muscle tissue d) striated muscle tissue e) glandular tissue CM Indicate the hormones elaborated by the testes and ovaries: a) estrogen b) mesotestosterone c) prostatin d) testosterone e) enteroestrogen CM Bulbourethral glands: a) are numeric variable b) they are located in the urogenital diaphragm, deep transverse muscle of the perineum c) excretory duct of each gland opens in the incipient part of the penile urethra d) they secrete a viscous liquid, which is ejected into the urethra during ejaculation e) they correspond with female paraurethral glands CM The parts of the penis: a) glans penis b) corona glandis c) root of penis d) body of penis e) base of penis CM Regarding the penis: a) its root consists of crura penis and bulb of penis b) it is fixed by perineum, fundiform ligament and suspensory ligament c) glans penis and bulb of penis are the expansions of the spongy body d) it develops from genital tubercle and genital folds e) it serves just as a urinal duct
73.
CM The structure of the penis: a) a spongy body b) bulb of penis c) tunica albuginea d) two cavernous bodies e) two spongy bodies
74.
CM Parts of male urethra: a) spongy part b) cavernous part c) membranos part d) external part e) prostatic part
75.
CM Male urethra penetrates: a) corpus cavernosum of the penis b) spongy body of the penis c) urogenital diaphragm d) pelvic diaphragm e) prostate
76.
CM Narrowings (or constrictions) of the male urethra are located at the level of: a) bulb of penis b) membranous part c) external orifice (meatus) d) prostatic part e) internal orifice (meatus)
77.
CM Male urethra`s dilatations are located at the level of: a) membranous part b) cavernous part c) glans penis d) prostatic part e) bulb of penis
78.
CM Exploration of the male urethra: a) catheterization b) colposcopy c) urethrography d) urethrocystoscopy e) colpography
79.
CM Scrotum`s tunics: a) skin b) cremasteric fascia c) internal spermatic fascia d) mucosa e) muscular coat CM In order to evacuate the accumulation of the fluid from the vaginal cavity, the needle pierces: a) skin b) tunica dartos c) cremasteric fascia d) internal spermatic fascia e) visceral lamina of tunica vaginalis CM Which formations related to the scrotum and testis are derived from the anterior abdominal wall: a) cremaster muscle b) tunica vaginalis testis c) tunica albuginea d) tunica dartos e) gubernaculum testis CM To explore the scrotum may be used: a) palpation b) pelviography c) diaphanoscopy d) sonography e) urethrocystoscopy CM Processus vaginalis: a) is a derivative of the peritoneum b) it exists only in man c) it turns into tunica vaginalis testis d) its portion, lying around the spermatic cord after birth is absorbed e) it appears during the VII month of intrauterine life at the future internal orifice of the
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
inguinal canal CM Regarding the male urethra: a) it develops from urogenital sinus b) ejaculatory duct opens in the prostatic part of the urethra c) excretory ducts of the bulbourethral glands open in the membranous part of the urethra d) it has three parts and two constrictions e) mucous coat of all parts of urethra is covered by the transitional epithelium CM Male urethra: a) describes two curves with subpubian and prepubian angles b) it consists of fixed and mobile parts; anterior and posterior parts; prostatic, membranous and spongy parts c) in the newborn it has a length of 5-6 cm d) its weakest point is located between membranous part and spongy parts e) it has a uniform size CM Regarding the urethra wall`s structure: a) it has three tunics - mucous, muscular and adventitia b) visualized during urethrocystoscopy mucosa is reddish c) mucous tunic contains urethral glands (Littré) d) muscular tunic contains smooth longitudinal and circular fibers e) adventitia connects urethra with adjacent formations
Female genital organs
87.
88.
89.
90.
CS Which female genital organs are parenchymal: a) uterus b) ovary c) fallopian tube d) vagina e) clitoris CS In relation to the peritoneum ovary is located: a) intraperitoneally b) mesoperitoneally c) extraperitoneally d) in the peritoneal cavitye) retoperitoneally CS Among the elements which fix the ovary, smooth muscle contains: a) suspensory ligament b) neurovascular pedicle c) proper ligament d) mesovarium e) tubo-ovarian ligament CS Ovarian hilum is located on the edge: a) lateral b) inferior c) superior d) free e) mesovarian
91.
CS The surface of the ovary is covered by: a) germinal epithelium b) peritoneum c) adventitia d) tunica albuginea e) tunica subserosa
92.
CS Mature follicles of the ovaries are located in: a) ovarian medulla b) ovarian stroma c) tunica albuginea d) ovarian cortex e) embryonic epithelium
93.
CS Oocyte from the matured follicle enters: a) the fallopian tube b) the cavity of the uterus c) the parametrium d) the vagina e) the peritoneal cavity
94.
CS Female sex cells are maturing in: a) the ovarian follicles b) the fallopian tubes c) the ovarian hilum d) the vagina e) the uterus
95.
CS Capture of oocyte, fertilization and zygote transportation can be achieved with the contribution of the following formations, except: a) smooth muscle fibres of ovarian ligaments b) ovarian fimbria and tubo-ovarian ligament c) mesosalpinx, which facilitate mobility of the tube d) muscular coat of the uterine tube e) ciliated epithelium of the tubal mucosa
96.
CS Relationship of the fallopian tube to the peritoneum: a) extraperitoneal position b) retroperitoneal position c) mesoperitoneal position d) intraperitoneal position e) in the peritoneal cavity
97.
CS All statements regarding the uterus are correct, except: a) fundus represents the part of the uterus, located above the openings of the uterine tubes b) the edges of the uterus at the nubile woman are convex c) the cervix shows morphological features depending on age and number of births d) its weight at the multiparous woman is on average smaller than at nulliparous woman e) its muscular tunic (myometrium) has a uniform structure; it consists of bundles of smooth muscle fibers and connective tissue (which predominates)
98.
CS Regarding the relationship of the uterus towards the peritoneum: a) it is located intraperitoneally b) from the anterior surface of the uterus peritoneum descends to the pelvic part of vagina c) peritoneum of the both surfaces of the uterus forms the broad ligaments d) between two excavations (pouches), formed by peritoneum, vesicouterin pouch is deeper e) it is located extraperitoneally
99.
CS The most fixed part of the uterus is: a) the body b) the neck c) the fundus d) the isthmus e) the ostium
100. CS The components of the broad ligament are all listed formations except:
a) mesometrium b) mesosalpinx c) cardinal ligaments d) mesovarium e) perimeterium
101. CS What kind of shape does the cavity of the uterus have on the radiogram:
a) rhombus b) triangular c) oval d) square e) irregular 102. CS Between the body and neck of the uterus there is:
a) uterine vestibule b) uterine diverticulum c) uterine infundibulum d) uterine ampulla e) uterine isthmus 103. CS Ostium of uterus is located on the:
a) supravaginal part b) vaginal part c) infravaginal part d) uterine isthmus e) extravaginal part 104. CS Palmate folds are located in:
a) the cavity of the uterus b) the cervical canal c) the vagina d) the fallopian tubes e) the fundus of the uterus 105. CS The parametrium is:
a) the serous coat of the uterus b) the lax connective tissue from the region of the fundus of the uterus c) the lax connective tissue from the region of the body of the uterus d) a ligament of the uterus e) the lax connective tissue between two peritoneal layers, forming the broad ligament 106. CS Cardinal ligaments of the uterus are located between:
a) the rectum and uterus b) the pubic symphysis and uterus c) the uterus and pelvic walls d) the uterus and urinary bladder e) the uterus and ovary
107. CS The vault of the vagina is located:
a) bilateral to the uterine cervix b) posterior to the uterine cervix c) around the uterin cervix d) around the labia of cervix s) anterior to the vaginal vestibule 108. CS All elements fixing the vagina listed below are secondary, except:
a) the cervix of uterus b) adjacent to the neighboring organs (urinary bladder, urethra, rectum) c) sacrorectogenitopubic laminae and cardinal ligaments d) central tendon of perineum (perineal body) e) levator ani muscles 109. CS Pudendal cleft is bounded by:
a) pelvic perineal muscles b) clitoris c) urogenital perineal muscles d) labia majora e) labia minora 110. CS Greater vestibular glands are located:
a) in the bulb of vestibule b) at the base of the labia minora pudendi c) at the base of the clitoris d) in the thickness of the wall of the vaginal vestibule e) in the corpora cavernosa clitoris 111. CS Lesser vestibular glands are located:
a) in the corpus cavernosum clitoris b) at the base of the labia minora pudendi c) at the basis of the labia majora pudendi d) in the thickness of the wall of the vaginal vestibule e) in the mucous coat of female urethra 112. CM Internal female genital organs are, as follows:
a) uterus b) fallopian tubes c) vagina d) ovaries e) clitoris
113. CM External female genital organs are vas follows:
a) vagina b) clitoris c) labia minora d) fallopian tubes e) labia majora 114. CM The ovary:
a) paired organ, which represents female sex gland b) it is a mobile organ of the lesser pelvis c) it produces female sex cells (oocytes) and secretes sexual hormones d) dimensions, weight, appearance and color of adult females are constant e) it can be explored by bimanual palpation, pelviography, ultrasonography, laparoscopy 115. CM In relative ovarian fixation contribute all listed items except:
a) suspensory ligament with neurovascular pedicle b) proper ligament c) lateral ligament of the uterus d) tubo-ovarian ligament e) mesovarium
116. CM The ovarian faces are:
a) anterior b) posterior c) lateral d) superior e) medial 117. CM The ovarian borders:
a) free b) medial c) inferior d) superior e) mesovarian 118. CM The ovarian ends:
a) uterine b) urethral c) lateral d) tubal e) medial
119. CM Ovarian functions:
a) metabolic b) female sex cells production c) hematopoietic d) endocrine e) transportation of oocytes 120. CM Fixation apparatus of the ovary includes the ligaments:
a) uteroovarian b) tuboovarian c) suspensory ligament d) round ligament e) proper ligament of the ovary 121. CM Ovarian parenchyma is composed of:
a) cortical substance b) endocrine substance c) canalicular substance d) glandular substance e) medullar substance 122. CM Phases of the menstrual cycle:
a) premenstrual (secretion) b) intermediate c) menstrual d) retromenstrual e) postmenstrual 123. CM The following organs are located intraperitoneally: a) the ovaries b) the fallopian tubes c) the prostate d) the uterus e) the urinary bladder 124. CM Informations about the shape and the size of the ovaries can be obtained by:
a) pelviography b) rectal palpation c) ultrasonography d) endoscopy e) bimanual palpation 125. CM Metrosalpingography represents a radiological method of exploration of: a) the urethra b) the uterus c) the ureters d) the tubes e) the ovaries 126. CM Colposcopy is a exploration method of: a) the ovaries b) the cervix c) the uterus d) the vagina e) the rectum
127. CM The following parts are distinguished in the salpinx:
a) uterine part b) ovarian part c) ampulla d) isthmus e) infundibulum 128. CM Fallopian tube:
a) develops from paramesonephric duct b) it is a tortuous musculofibros conduct with uniform lumen c) it connects the uterus with the upper end of the ovary d) it has a length of 10-12 cm e) it can be explored by palpation, hysterosalpingography, celioscopy 129. CM Salpinx` tunics are:
a) mucous b) vascular c) muscular d) subserous e) serous 130. CM Position of the uterus (in normal condition) is:
a) anteflexion b) retroflexion c) anteversion d) retroversion e) lateroversion 131. CM Tunics of the uterine wall are, except:
a) the mesometrium b) the perimetrium c) the parametrium d) the myometrium e) the endometrium 132. CM The endometrium:
a) the uterine mucous coat has a structure similar to the cervical canal and does not form folds b) from the first menstruation until menopause the endometrium undergoes significant cyclical changes c) the most increased proliferation and thickening of the uterus mucosa occurs in the third phase of the menstrual cycle d) participates in the formation of the placenta in pregnancy e) outer layer of uterus
133. CM Uterine suspension apparatus includes:
a) cardinal ligament b) vesicouterin ligament c) broad ligament d) pubovesical ligament e) round ligament 134. CM Parts of the uterus:
a) superior b) fundus c) inferior d) neck e) body 135. CM The uterus is located:
a) in front of the rectum b) in front of the urinary bladder c) behind of the rectum d) behind of the urinary bladder e) between the rectum and the urinary bladder 136. CM The portions of uterine cervix:
a) infravaginal b) uterine isthmus c) vaginal d) extravaginal e) supravaginal 137. CM Ostium of the uterus is delimited by:
a) medial labium b) lateral labium c) anterior labium d) posterior labium e) intermediate labium 138. CM Faces of of the uterus:
a) ovarian b) urinary bladder c) vaginal d) tubal e) intestinal
139. CM Tunics of the uterine wall:
a) endometrium b) mesometrium c) myometrium d) perimetrium e) parametrium 140. CM Which tunics are absent in the structure of the uterus:
a) serous b) muscular c) submucosa d) mucosa e) adventitia 141. CM In the structure of broad ligament of the uterus are distinguished:
a) mesorectum b) mesosalpinx c) mesovarium d) perimetrium e) epimetrium 142. CM Oocyte transportation to the uterus is achieved by:
a) abdominal pressure b) myometrium c) muscular coat of the tube d) endometrium`s absorption e) ciliated cells of tubal mucosa 143. CM Pelvic portion of the vagina has relationships with:
a) urinary bladder (at the level of Pawlick`s vaginal triangle) b) urethra c) peritoneum (at the level of Douglas` space) d) rectal ampulla e) anal canal 144. CM Vaginal wall consists of the follwing coats:
a) mucous b) muscular c) spongious d) adventitia e) serous
145. CM Vaginal mucosa:
a) contains submucosa b) forms longitudinal folds c) does not form any folds d) forms transverse folds e) does not contain mucous glands 146. CM Pudendum femininum includes:
a) clitoris b) labia majora c) labia minora d) mons pubis e) uterus 147. CS The vulva includes the following formations, except:
a) mons pubis b) labial formations c) erectile bodies (organs) d) vestibule of the vagina e) obstetrical perineum 148. CM In vaginal vestibule open:
a) greater vestibular glands b) mucous glands c) external orifice of the urethra d) lesser vestibular glands e) vaginal orifice (ostium) 149. CM Female urethra can be examined by:
a) palpation b) urethrography c) colpography d) metrosalpingography e) urethrocystoscopy Perineum 150. CS The perineum represents:
a) layer covering the abdominal viscera b) layer covering the walls of the abdominal cavity c) layer covering the lesser pelvic organs d) layer covering the lesser pelvic cavity walls e) complex of soft tissue that close the pelvic outlet
151. CS Urogenital diaphragm is composed of the following structures, except:
a) deep transverse muscle of perineum b) transverse ligament of perineum c) external sphincter muscle of urethra d) superficial fascia e) parietal pelvic fascia 152. CS Main resistance structure of the perineum is:
a) superficial perineal fascia b) central tendon of the perineum (the perineal body) c) deep perineal fascia d) deep transverse muscle of perineum e) ischiocavernosus muscles 153. CS Correct statements about the pelvic diaphragm are all, except:
a) it contains a weak place on median line b) it is not in the same plane with the urogenital diaphragm c) it includes coccygeal and anal levator muscles with their fascia d) it has the functions of suspension and support of the pelvic organs e) it is delimited laterally by sacrotuberale ligaments 154. CS Perineum occupies the region delimited anteriorly by:
a) superior margin of the pubic symphysis b) inferior margin of the pubic symphysis c) superior rami of the pubic bones d) inferior rami of the pubic bones e) ischial rami 155. CM Bilateral perineum is delimited by:
a) superior rami of the pubic bones b) rami of the ischium c) inferior rami of the pubic bones d) ischial tuberosities e) inferior rami of the ischium 156. CS Posteriorly perineum is delimited by:
a) promontorium b) apex of the coccyx c) the 5th sacral vertebra d) the 2nd sacral vertebra e) borderline between the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae
157. CS Visceral pelvis fascia is considered the fascia:
a) inferior of the urogenital diaphragm b) reflected on the organs of the lesser pelvis c) superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm d) inferior fascia of the pelvic diaphragm e) superior fascia of anal diaphragm 158. CM Regarding the external sphincter muscle of urethra:
a) it has the same structure in both genders b) it is a part of the pelvic diaphragm c) it is under a voluntar control d) it has the origin and insertion around the urethra e) it surrounds the prostatic part of the urethra 159. CM In female, the obstetrical perineum is limited:
a) anteriorly by labia majora b) posteriorly by anterior margin of the anus c) anteriorly by labia minora d) anteriorly by clitoris e) anteriorly by posterior margin of the pudental cleft 160. CM In male, the surgical perineum is delimited by:
a) posteriorly by the anterior margin of the anus b) anteriorly by the root of the penis c) anteriorly by the testicles d) posteriorly by the posterior margin of the anus e) anteriorly by the posterior margin of the scrotum 161. CM Urogenital diaphragm:
a) occupies the posterior part of perineum b) the urethra passes through it in man c) the urethra and vagina passes through it in woman d) it is delimited by superior rami of the pubic bones and rami of the ischium e) its tip is oriented to the center of the perineum 162. CM Superficial muscles of the urogenital diaphragm:
a) pubovesical muscle b) ischiocavernosus muscle c) levator ani muscle d) bulbospongiosus muscle e) superficial transverse perineal muscle 163. CM Pelvic diaphragm muscles:
a) coccygeal muscle b) transverse perineal muscle c) external anal sphincter d) levator ani muscle e) sacrorectal muscle 164. CM Ischioanal (ischiorectal) fossa:
a) lateral wall is formed by obturator muscle b) medial wall is delimited by levator ani muscle and external anal sphincter c) posterior wall is formed by the levator ani muscle
d) inferior wall is formed by external anal sphincter muscle e) anterior wall consists of transverse muscles of perineum 165. CM Regarding the ischiocavernosus muscle:
a) its contraction is the main mechanism of erection b) its insertion is on the central tendon of perineum c) it is a muscle of the urogenital diaphragm d) it is separated from the other muscle by its own fascia e) it defines the lower pelvic aperture 166. CM Levator ani muscle is:
a) a sphincter of vagina b) a sphincter of rectum c) it consists of two fascicles d) it is only a levator of anus e) it contributes to erection 167. CM The walls of ischioanal (ischiorectal) fossa:
a) the medial wall consists of levator ani muscle and external anal sphincter b) the floor consists of superficial fascia and skin c) the lateral wall is formed by internal obturator muscle and its fascia d) the posterior wall is formed by the edge of gluteus maximmus muscle e) the anterior wall does not exist 168. CS Ischioanal (ischiorectal) fossa:
a) does not exist in children b) it is limited inferiorly by skin c) it extends in anterior perineum d) it communicates with the gluteal region e) it contains adipose tissue, called paraproctium 169. CM Ischioanal (ischiorectal) fossa:
a) is filled with adipose tissue divided by connective tissue septa b) it is a continuation of the superficial adipose layer of the perineum and abdominal wall c) it contains blood vessels and nerves d) it extends between urogenital and pelvic diaphragms e) it communicates with lesser pelvic cavity
VII. ENDOCRINE GLANDS AND IMMUNE SYSTEM TESTS 1.
SC Which endocrine glands inhibit premature development of the sex glands: a) hypophysis b) epiphysis c) thymus d) thyroid gland e) suprarenal (adrenal) glands
2.
SC As a remnant of 3rd - 4th branchial recesses could be: a) ductus thyreoglossus b) ductus thymopharyngeus c) canalis craniopharyngeus d) ductus arteriosus (Botallo) e) ductus venosus (Aranzi)
3.
SC Hypophysis (hypophyseal fossa) is located in: a) Turkish saddle (sella turcica) b) orbit c) sphenoidal sinus d) frontal sinus e) inferior nasal meatus
4.
MC Hypophysis: is located below the optic chiasm. it has an anterior lobe (adenohypophysis), which develops from ectoderm. it has a posterior lobe (neurohypophysis), which develops from entoderm. it is connected to the hypothalamus. it is located postero-superior to the sphenoidal sinus.
5.
SC Turkish saddle (with fossa hypophysialis) belongs to: a) frontal bone b) zygomatic bone c) sphenoid bone d) parietal bone e) temporal bone
6.
SC Hypophysis is separated from the subdural space by: a) diaphragm of the Turkish saddle b) arachnoid mater c) falx cerebelli d) nasal septum e) cribriform plate
a) b) c) d) e)
7.
8.
SC Hypophysis is: a) bean-shaped (ellipsoid in shape) b) lentil-shaped c) shaped like a grain of wheat d) coffee bean-shaped e) pea-shaped SC Hypophysis consists of: a) anterior and posterior lobes b) anterior lobe, intermediate part, posterior lobe c) superior and inferior lobes d) superior lobe, inferior lobe and tuberal part e) left lobe, right lobe and intermediate part
9.
SC 70% - 80% of the weight of the hypophysis is represented by: a) posterior lobe b) intermediate part c) anterior lobe d) tuberal part e) tuber cinereum
10.
SC Adenohypophysis is also called: a) anterior lobe b) posterior lobe c) tuberal part d) epiphysis e) hypothalamus
11.
SC Pituicytes are distinguished in: a) adenohypophysis b) neurohypophysis c) influndibulum d) hypothalamus e) intermediate part SC The origin of the posterior lobe of the hypophysis is: epithelial, like the intermediate lobe epithelial, like the anterior lobe nervous, like the anterior lobe nervous, like the hypothalamus nervous, like the intermediate lobe SC Hypophysis is connected to: a) hypothalamus b) epithalamus c) striate body d) cerebral hemispheres e) spinal cord
12.
a) b) c) d) e) 13.
14.
SC Hypophysis develops from: a) endoderm and neural tube b) ectoderm and neural tube c) epithelium d) mesoderm e) endoderm
15.
SC Rathke`s pouch is a protrusion of: a) epithelium of the roof of the oral pit b) epithelium of the foregut c) epithelium of the hindgut d) epithelium of the cephalic part of the primary gut e) epithelium of the midgut
16.
SC Rathke`s pouch develops from: a) endoderm b) mesoderm c) ectoderm d) mesenchyme e) neuromesenchyme
17.
SC Rathke`s pouch gives rise to: a) anterior lobe b) intermediate lobe c) posterior lobe d) infundibulum e) superior lobe
18.
SC The posterior lobe of the hypophysis develops from: a) telencephalon b) diencephalon c) mesencephalon d) metencephalon e) rhombencephalon
19.
SC The abnormality "canalis craniopharyngeus" could appear in relation with the development of: a) neurohypophysis b) adenohypophysis c) nasopharynx d) sphenoid bone e) diencephalon SC Neurohypophysis is connected to the hypothalamus by: a) hypophyseal portal system b) hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract c) epithalamo-hypophyseal tract d) mammillothalamic tract (Vicq d, Azyr) e) olfactory tract SC Neurohypophysis: a) produces hormones b) stores hormones c) stores and produces hormons d) does not store and not produce hormones e) does not store hormones SC Adenohypophysis is connected to the hypothalamus by: a) hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract b) hypophyseal portal system c) optic tract d) pyramidal tract e) thalamocortical tract
20.
21.
22.
23.
a) b) c) d) e)
SC Adenohypophysis produces: tropic hormones, prolactin, ADH STH, prolactin, oxytocin STH, oxytocin, melanocyte-stimulating hormone STH, thyrotropin, gonadotropic hormones STH, tropic hormones, prolactin
24.
SC How many networks of capillaries are distinguished in the hypophyseal portal system: a) two b) one c) zero d) three e) four
25.
SC Where is the primary network of capillaries of the hypophyseal portal system located: a) in the tuber cinereum and infundibulum b) in the epithalamus c) in the metathalamus d) in the mammillary bodies e) in the neurohypophysis
26.
SC Where is the „secondary” network of capillaries of the hypophyseal portal system located: a) in the hypothalamus b) in the adenohypophysis c) in the neurohypophysis d) in the intermediate part e) in the thalamus
27.
SC What do the portal veins of hypophyseal portal system connect: a) primary network of capillaries with cavernous sinus b) primary network of capillaries with secondary network of sinusoid capillaries c) primary network of capillaries with great cerebral vein (Galenus) d) primary network of capillaries with venous ring (Ridley) e) secondary network with efferent veins of hypophysis
28.
SC Why is the secondary network of capillaries of the hypophyseal portal system called "rete mirabile" („amazing network”): a) because it is located between the portal veins and the arterial circle of Willis b) because it is located between the portal veins and the efferent veins of adenohypophysis c) because it is located between the portal veins and the superior hypophyseal arteries d) because it is located between the portal veins and the inferior hypophyseal arteries e) because it is located between the portal veins and the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.
29.
30.
SC Where do the portal veins of the hypophyseal portal system pass through: a) mammillary bodies b) hypophyseal stalk c) optic tracts d) tuberal part of the adenohypophysis e) olfactory tracts SC Hypophysis achieves the highest weight: a) in child b) in man c) in pregnan woman d) in woman e) in old person
31.
SC In case of the hyperfunction of the hypophysis in adult could apear: a) Basedow's disease b) acromegaly c) Addison's disease d) gigantism e) myxedema
32.
SC Lobes of the hypophysis represent (in%): neurohypophysis – 75% intermediate lobe – 2% both neurohypophysis and adenohypophysis – 75% anterior lobe – 75% medial lobe – 30%
a) b) c) d) e) 33.
a) b) c) d) e) 34.
a) b) c) d) e) 35.
a) b) c) d) e) 36.
SC Intermediate lobe of the hypophysis: secrets melatonin secrets melanocyte-stimulating hormone achieves the highest level of development in childhood ataches tight to the posterior lobe does not depend on the hypothalamus SC Epiphysis consists of: stroma and secretory epithelial cells anastomosed cellular cords and connective tissue stroma with vessels and nerves stroma, secretory neuroglial cells and sympathetic nerve fibres stroma, glial cells and numerous parasympathetic nerve fibres a network of connections of reticular cell and secretory cells SC Posterior lobe of the hypophysis: is connected to the hypothalamus by the hypophyseal portal system forms together with the pituitary stalk neurohypophysis represents 75% of the weight of the gland stores ADH and oxytocin, which are produced by the neurons of the anterior hypothalamus stocks the hormones produced by the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei SC What is another name of the pineal body: a) hypophysis b) epiphysis c) pituitary gland d) thyroid gland e) hypothalamus
37.
a) b) c) d) e) 38.
39.
SC The active hormone of the epiphysis is: vasopressin melanocyte-stimulating hormone melatonin aldosterone calcitonin SC Epiphysis achieves the highest level of development: a) in child b) in adult c) in old person d) in man e) in woman SC Epiphysis is a part of: a) hypothalamus b) epithalamus c) metathalamus d) spinal cord e) cerebellum
40.
SC Epiphysis is a part of: a) cerebral hemispheres b) mesencephalon c) rhombencephalon d) hypothalamus e) diencephalon
41.
SC Epiphysis is connected to the brain by: a) anterior cerebral commissure b) habenulae c) cerebral peduncles d) commissure of fornix e) posterior cerebral commissure
42.
SC Epiphysis is located between: a) superior colliculi of the tectum of the midbrain b) inferior colliculi of the tectum of the midbrain c) mammillary bodies d) thalamus e) superior and inferior cerebellar peduncles
43.
SC Under epiphysis and habenular commissure there is: a) adhesio interthalamica b) anterior cerebral commissure c) posterior cerebral commissure d) optic chiasma e) corpus callosum
44.
SC Parenchyma of the epiphysis consists of specialized cells, called: a) pituicytes b) pinealocytes c) iliocytes d) plasmocytes e) lymphocytes
45.
SC There are some yellowish inclusions in the adult epiphysis, called: a) corpora arenacea (or brain sand) b) urinary bladder sand c) gallbladder sand d) sea sand e) river sand
46.
SC Epiphysis develops from: a) the roof of 4th ventricle b) the roof of 3rd ventricle c) the roof of midbrain d) the roof of lateral ventricle e) the tegmentum of midbrain
47.
SC Involution of the epiphysis starts at the age of: a) 5 - 8 years b) 13 - 15 years c) 23 - 25 years d) 50 years e) 70 years
48.
SC Epiphysis produces the hormone: a) thyroxine b) prolactin c) melatonin d) melanotropin e) progesterone
49.
MC What does the colloid of the follicles of the thyroid gland contain: a) testosterone b) aldosterone c) thyroxine d) triiodothyronine e) calcitonin SC Thyroid gland has the weight of: 25-35 g 30-40 g 45-50 g beeing the largest gland of the body 40-45 g 25-30 g SC The main protein of the thyroid colloid is: tyrosine thyroxine thyroglobulin triiodothyronine thyroxine şi triiodothyronine SC Follicular epithelial cells of the thyroid gland have the ability to capture: a) selenium b) calcium c) iodine d) phosphorus e) barium
50.
a) b) c) d) e) 51.
a) b) c) d) e) 52.
53.
SC What is the shape of the follicular epithelial cells: a) prismatic b) flat c) cuboid d) ciliated e) columnar de revazut varianta romana
54.
SC The inferior poles of the lobes of the thyroid gland reach the following cartilaginous rings of the trachea: a) I - II b) III - IV c) V - VI d) VIII - IX e) bifurcation of trachea
55.
MC Thyroid gland consists of: a) anterior lobe b) posterior lobe c) right lobe d) left lobe e) intermediate lobe
56.
SC Lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by: a) strip b) cord c) cartilaginous disc d) tendon e) isthmus
57.
SC In 30% of cases the thyroid gland has: a) caudate lobe b) pyramidal lobe c) quadrate lobe d) rhomboid lobe e) auricular lobe
58.
SC Parathyroid glands develop from epithelium of the 3rd – 4th branchial recesses together with: a) thyroid gland b) parotid gland c) epiphysis d) suprarenal glands e) paraganglia
59.
a) b) c) d) e)
SC Parathyroid glands: are located on the antero-superior surface of the lobes of the thyroid gland two pairs are located on the anterior surface of the lobes of the thyroid gland consist of anastomosed cellular cords consist of vesicular structures (follicles) produce parathyroid hormon and thyroxine
60.
SC Tetany and death could apear as a rezult of extirpation of the: a) suprarenal glands b) parathyroid glands c) thyroid gland d) hypophysis e) epiphysis
61.
SC The interaction of these hormones ensures the constant level of the blood calcium (calcium homeostasis): a) thyroxine – parathyroid hormone b) parathyroid hormone - calcitonin c) parathyroid hormone - thyrotropin d) testosterone - progesterone e) insulin – parathyroid hormone
62.
SC As usual the number of the parathyroid glands is: a) 1 b) 2 - 4 c) 4 d) 7 - 8 e) 12
63.
SC The smallest glands are: a) hypophysis b) epiphysis c) thyroid gland d) parathyroid glands e) thymus
64.
SC Hassall's corpuscules are located in: a) islets of Langerhans b) medulla of the thymus c) medulla of the suprarenal glands d) neurohypophysis e) cortex of the thymus
65.
SC Hormones of the islets of Langerhans regulate: a) lipid metabolism b) protein metabolism c) carbohydrate metabolism d) water-solt metabolism e) metabolism of the mineral substances
66.
SC Glucagon is produced by: cells of pancreatic acini B-cells of the islets of Langerhans A-cells of the islets Langerhans cells of the gastric glands, which also produce HCL cells of the duodenal glands, which also produce secretin SC What kind of gland is the pancreas: a) exocrine b) endocrine c) mixed d) alveolar e) alveolar-tubular
a) b) c) d) e) 67.
68.
SC Suprarenal glands are located: a) above the superior pole of the kidney b) at the inferior pole of the kidney c) on the anterior surface of the kidney d) on the posterior surface of the kidney e) at the level of the renal hilum
69.
SC Suprarenal glands are located: on the anterior surface of the kidney on the posterior surface of the kidney along the lateral border of the kidney at the level of the renal hilum on the superior pole of the kidney
a) b) c) d) e) 70.
MC Parenchyma of the suprarenal glands consists of two parts, which differ from each other in: a) structure b) phylogenetic development c) embryogenetic development d) function e) location
71.
SC Cortex of the suprarenal glands develops from: a) mesodermal interrenal cells b) ectodermal cells c) endodermal cells d) chromaffin cells e) basophil cells
72.
SC Cortex of the suprarenal glands develops: from ectoderm like the peripheral part of the vegetative nervous system from mesoderm like the medulla of suprarenal gland from neural crest cells
a) b) c) d) e) 73.
a) b) c) d) e) 74.
a) b) c) d) e) 75.
a) b) c) d) e) 76.
SC Neurons of the medulla of the suprarenal glands, which lost their axons and gained secretory abilities are: sympathetic preganglionic neurons sympathetic postganglionic neurons parasympathetic preganglionic neurons parasympathetic postganglionic neurons vegetative neurons of the spinal ganglia SC Medulla of the suprarenal glands can be considered as: a large vegetative parasympathetic gaglion a large ganglion with sympathetic and parasympathetic components a large vegetative sympathetic ganglion a spinal ganglion with well developed sympathetic component a spinal ganglion with well developed parasympathetic component SC Medulla of the suprarenal glands produces: a mixture of variable proportions of aldosterone and cortisol a mixture of variable proportions of aldosterone and adrenaline a mixture of variable proportions of aldosterone and noradrenaline a mixture of variable proportions of aldosterone and androgens a mixture of variable proportions of adrenaline and noradrenaline SC Aldosterone is produced by: a) medulla of the suprarenal gland b) zona glomerulosa c) zona fasciculata d) zona reticularis e) corpus luteum
77.
SC Adrenaline is the antagonist of: a) progesterone b) aldosterone c) insulin d) thyroxine e) melatonin
78.
SC Thymus achieves its maximum development: a) in newborn b) in child c) at puberty (10 - 15 years) d) in adult e) in old person
79.
SC Thymus achieves the highest development: in newborn, after that atrophies during intrauterine development in chilhood at puberty in old person SC Weight of this endocrine gland decreases suddenly during the first months of life: a) epiphysis b) suprarenal glands c) thyroid gland d) parathyroid glands e) thymus
a) b) c) d) e) 80.
81.
SC Paraganglia represent small endocrine glands, similar: a) the cortex of the suprarenal gland b) the medulla of the suprarenal gland c) the ganglia of the sympathetic chain d) parathyroid glands e) pineal body
82.
MC Central endocrine glands are: a) paraganglia b) thymus c) hypothalamus d) hypophysis e) epiphysis
83.
MC Hormones are produced by: a) endocrine glands b) APUD cells c) central nervous system d) kidney e) spleen
84.
MC Endocrine glands: a) have excretory ducts b) are well vascularized c) are relatively small d) their weights and sizes are larger in women e) function more intensively in youth and in old age people
85.
MC Posterior lobe of the hypophysis consists of: a) neuroglial cells (pituicytes) b) nerve fibres, which form the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract c) neurosecretory corpuscles of Herring d) chromaffin endocrinocytes e) basophil endocrinocytes
86.
SC Hypophysis connects with hypothalamus by: a) infundibulum b) optic tract c) dura mater d) mammillothalamic tract e) medial longitudinal fasciculus
87.
MC Posterior lobe of the hypophysis is a storage of: a) prolactin b) vasopressin c) oxytocin d) somatotropin e) thyrotropin
88.
MC Oxytocin is produced by: a) hypothalamic magnocellular system b) supraoptic nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus c) adenohypophysis d) epiphysis e) paraventricular nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus
89.
SC Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH) is produced by: a) paraventricular nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus b) hypothalamic magnocellular system c) adenohypophysis d) neurohypophysis e) thyroid gland
90.
SC What is the shape of epiphysis: a) ovoid b) spheroid c) conoid d) infundibuliform e) pear-shaped
91.
MC Posterolateral surfaces of the lobes of the thyroid gland come in contact with: a) laryngeal part of the pharynx b) oesophagus c) common carotid artery d) recurrent laryngeal nerve e) phrenic nerve
92.
SC In front the thyroid gland comes in contact with: a) infrahyoid muscles b) superficial layer of the cervical fascia c) pretracheal layer of the cervical fascia d) superior vena cava e) hypoglossal nerve
93.
MC Isthmus of the thyroid gland lies at the level of: a) the 2nd– 3rd tracheal rings b) sometimes at the level of the 1st tracheal ring c) the arch of the cricoid cartilage d) the inferior border of the laminae of the thyroid cartilage e) the hyoid bone
94.
MC Thyroid gland is: a) larger in male than in female b) the largest endocrine gland c) a paired gland d) a unpaired gland e) the smallest endocrine gland
95.
MC The colour of the parathyroid glands is: a) reddish - brown b) pale pink (in child) c) yellowish - brown (in adult) d) pinkish - grey e) whitish
96.
MC Parathyroid glands are located: a) on the anterior surface of the thyroid gland b) two in number on the posterior surface of each lobe of the thyroid gland c) on the posterior surface of the thymus d) on the posterior surface of the pericardium e) in the thickness of the thyroid gland
97.
SC Islets of Langerhans are prevalent located in: a) the region of the head of the pancreas b) the body of the pancreas c) the region of the tail of the pancreas d) all over the pancreas e) in the region of the tuber omentale of the pancreas
98.
MC Islets of Langerhans produce the hormones: a) glucagon b) insulin c) somatostatin d) oxytocin e) melatonin
99.
MC Parenchyma of the thyroid gland consists of: a) lobules b) follicles c) acini d) segments e) lobes
100. MC Superior poles of the lobes of the thyroid gland are situated:
a) above the superior border of the laminae of the thyroid cartilage b) below the superior border of the laminae of the thyroid cartilage c) laterally to the arch of the cricoid cartilage d) in front of the superior border of the laminae of the thyroid cartilage e) behind of the superior border of the laminae of the thyroid cartilage
101. MC Thyroid gland is located:
a) in the posterior region of the neck b) in the anterior region of the neck c) at the level of the larynx d) at the level of the upper part of the trachea e) at the level of the superior aperture of the thorax 102. MC Suprarenal glands are:
a) rhomboid in shape b) conic in shape c) the right adrenal gland is triangular in shape d) the left adrenal gland is semilunar in shape e) square in shape 103. MC The right suprarenal gland comes in contact:
a) with diaphragm behind b) with liver and duodenum in front c) medially with the stomach d) with superior pole of the kidney below e) laterally with inferior vena cava 104. MC The left suprarenal gland comes in contact:
a) with diaphragm behind b) medially with the aorta c) below with superior pole of the left kidney and its medial border d) with the tail of the pancreas and cardiac part of the stomach in front e) laterally with the sigmoid colon 105. SC Both suprarenal glands are located:
a) between two layers of the peritoneum b) in the adipose capsule of the kidney c) between two layers of the renal fascia d) between elements of the renal hilum e) under fibrous capsule of the kidney 106. MC The surfaces of the suprarenal gland are:
a) posterior b) anterior c) medial d) inferior e) lateral
107. MC Adrenal cortex consists of:
a) medulla b) islets of Langerhans c) zona glomerulosa d) zona fasciculata e) zona reticularis 108. MC Endocrine glands which consist of two different parts (morphofunctional parts,
phylo- and ontogenetic parts) are: a) thyroid gland b) hypophysis c) epiphysis d) suprarenal glands e) thymus 109. MC Adrenal medulla produces:
a) corticosterone b) androgen hormones c) estrogen d) adrenaline e) noradrenaline 110. MC High blood pressure can be caused by:
a) glucagon b) adrenaline c) noradrenaline d) vasopressin e) oxytocin 111. MC Parenchyma of the thymus consists of:
a) compact substance b) cortex c) medulla d) spongy substance e) gray matter 112. SC In which part of the mediastinum (PNA) is the thymus located:
a) anterior b) posterior c) superior d) inferior (anterior part) e) inferior (middle part)
113. MC Thymus consists of the following lobes:
a) superior b) inferior c) right d) left e) intermediate 114. MC What kind of organ is the thymus:
a) lymphoid organ b) peripheral immune organ c) central immune organ d) cavitary organ e) digestive organ 115. MC Thymus comes in contact:
a) superiorly – with the sternohyoid and sternothyroid muscles b) anteriorly – with the manubrium and body of the sternum c) posteriorly – with the pericardium, aorta and pulmonary trunk d) laterally – with superior vena cava and aortic arch e) inferiorly – with phrenic nerve 116. MC Which endocrine glands achieve a considerable mass (weight) in newborn:
a) thyroid gland b) suprarenal glands c) thymus d) parathyroid glands e) hypophysis 117. MC Cells of the APUD system are located in the:
a) skin b) spinal cord c) mucous coat of the alimentary canal d) mucous coat of the respiratory ways e) male and female genital organs
