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John Miyamoto (email: [email protected]) Psych 355: Introduction to Cognitive Psychology Course website: https://faculty.washington.edu/jmiyamot/p355/p355-set.htm

Spring 2015 ∘⋅

Final Examination Which is your section? (Circle one) NAME: UW ID:

Section AA: Section AB: Section AC: Section AD:

Friday 10:30 - 11:20 Friday 11:30 - 12:20 Friday 12:30 - 1:20 Friday 1:30 - 2:20

Instructions: ◦· • This exam has 19 total pages. Check that your copy of the quiz has all pages before starting. • Circle the code for your section (above): AA = Friday 10:30, AB = Friday 11:30, AC = Friday 12:30, AD = Friday 1:30, If you don't know your section, enter the section that you go to. • You are working on Version A of this exam. Record the version of the exam on the scantron form. • All questions are worth 1 point except for the essay question which is worth 4 points. • Turn off your cell phone. You are not allowed to use any books, notes, computers, cell phones or other electronic devices while taking this exam. 1.

2.

Your text describes the occurrence of a "cognitive revolution" during which dramatic changes took place in the way psychology was studied. This so-called "revolution" occurred parallel to (and, in part, because of) the introduction of a) Skinner boxes. b) computers. c) cognitive psychology textbooks. d) analytic introspection. A synapse is a) a tube filled with fluid that conducts electrical signals. b) the structure that contains mechanisms to keep a neuron alive. c) the structure that receives electrical signals from other neurons. d) the gap between two neurons across which neurotransmitter chemicals are passed from one neuron to the other.

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Suppose that a subject is presented with two stimuli in succession, e.g., Stimulus A followed by Stimulus B. Stimulus A is said to prime the processing of Stimulus B if .... a) prior exposure to Stimulus A facilitates the processing of Stimulus B. b) prior exposure to Stimulus A disrupts or blocks the processing of Stimulus B.

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c) prior exposure to Stimulus A causes subjects to confuse the correct response to Stimulus A with the correct response to Stimulus B. d) prior exposure to Stimulus A inhibits the detection of perceptual features in Stimulus B. 4.

We say that a person uses top-down processing while attending to traffic patterns and driving a car if .... a) this person's visual system constructs higher order perceptual objects like geons during the course of object recognition. b) stimulus information controls the perception of the traffic pattern. c) the person is unaware of radical changes in his environment that are irrelevant to the driving task. d) beliefs and expectations about driving influence what the person perceives in the traffic pattern.

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Helmholtz's idea of "unconscious inference" was important for the development of cognitive psychology because .... a) it emphasized that human actions are driven by many motives of which we are unaware. b) it emphasized that our perception of an external world requires many inferences that go beyond the information that is directly available to our sense organs. c) it emphasized that people can answer questions about experiences for which they have no conscious memory. d) it emphasized that scientists could measure the duration of inferential processes that cannot be directly observed.

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Figure 1 shows the left hemisphere of a human brain. I have added two large black arrows to this diagram. What do these arrows represent? a) The upper arrow is the "what" pathway. The lower arrow is the "where" pathway. b) The upper arrow is the "where" pathway. The lower arrow is the "what" pathway. c) The upper arrow is the perception pathway. The lower arrow is the language pathway. d) The upper arrow is the language pathway. The lower arrow is the perception pathway.

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Figure 1.

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is used to identify areas of the brain that are active when people perform particular cognitive tasks. This neuroimaging technique is based on what principle? a) If an area of the brain is active, the electrical activity in that area increases. fMRI detects changes in electrical activity by detecting the effects of electrical activity on magnetic fields. b) If an area of the brain is active, larger amounts of neurotransmitter are released into the blood in that area. fMRI detects the presence of neurotransmitter in the blood at different loci in the brain. c) If an area of the brain is active, it metabolizes oxygen. The circulatory system in the brain responds by sending more oxygenated blood to active areas of the brain, which results in a decrease in deoxygenated blood in these areas. fMRI identifies which areas of the brain contain decreased amounts of deoxygenated blood.

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d) If an area of the brain is active, it requires more blood. In fMRI, a radioactive tracer is injected into a subject's blood. When a subject performs a cognitive task, fMRI detects which areas of the brain are getting more radioactive tracer. 8.

Figure 2 shows a monkey brain as viewed from the left. The diagram shows that the monkey has damage to the left temporal lobe. How will this brain damage affect the behavior of the monkey, and what would it show about the functional localization? a) The monkey is likely to have difficulty with object discrimination because the damage is to the "what" pathway. Figure 2. Monkey brain with damage to left temporal lobe.

b) The monkey is likely to have difficulty with landmark discrimination because the damage is to the "where" pathway. c) The monkey is likely to have difficulty reaching accurately for an object because the damage is to the "action" pathway. d) The monkey is likely to have difficulty perceiving objects in motion because the damage is to the "spatial" pathway. 9.

In Biederman's recognition-by-components theory, a geon is what kind of thing? a) A geon is a pattern of neural activation that occurs shortly after an object is first identified by the visual system. b) A geon is a type of neuron that is specialized for discriminating between old and novel stimuli. c) A geon is a texture gradient that can be observed on flat textured surfaces, for example, the perceived texture of a rug as seen by someone in the middle of a large empty room. d) A geon is a basic shape that is commonly found as part of the structure of physical objects, e.g., one type of geon has a cylindrical shape.

10. Which of the following experimental findings is evidence against Broadbent's (1958) filter model? a) In a split-scan experiment, subjects make fewer mistakes if they are allowed to report all letter in their left ears followed by all letter in their right ears as opposed to reporting the first letter pair, then the second letter pair, then the third letter pair. b) In a dichotic listening task, if a subject is instructed to shadow the speech in her left ear, the subject will not remember anything about the content of the message in the right ear. c) In a dichotic listening task, if a subject is instructed to shadow the speech in her left ear, the subject will still be aware that her own name was spoken into the right ear. d) In a dichotic listening task, if a subject is instructed to shadow the speech in her left ear, the subject will still be aware that a loud noise like a loud door bell was played into the right ear. 11. Which of the following is an example of an automatic process (for a typical adult American)? a) Deciding which shoes to buy at a shoestore. b) Recognizing your mother's voice when you answer the telephone.

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c) Deciding what is the shortest route between two locations on a map that you are looking at. d) Picking which clothes to wear to a party. 12. Suppose an experiment is done in which the subject must fixate on position B in Figure 3, and then on randomly chosen trials, the subject has to switch attention to positions A, C or D. If it is found that subjects are faster at switching attention from B to C than from B to A or from B to D, what would this suggest about the nature of attention? a) It takes more time to switch attention in horizontal directions than vertical directions. b) Attention is location based. c) The capacity of attention is limited. d) Attention is object-based.

Figure 3.

13. It has been found that irrelevant distracting stimuli can impair the performance of novice and expert video game players on an easy game, but when the difficulty level of the game is increased, only the expert video game players are affected by the irrelevant stimuli. Why does this happen? a) Expert video game players are more sensitive to all stimuli, whether or not they are relevant to the game. b) Expert video game players have excess attentional capacity to devote to irrelevant stimuli when the game is easy but also when it is moderately difficult. Novice video game players have excess attentional capacity when the game is easy but not when it is difficult. c) Long-term practice at video game playing has altered the brains of expert game players by a process known as experienced-based plasticity. As a result, they have neural pathways for processing the irrelevant stimuli that that the novices do not have. d) Expert video game players have learned that seemingly irrelevant stimuli can turn out to be relevant to performance on a game. Consequently they pay more attention to irrelevant stimuli than do novice game players. 14. According to Treisman's (1986) feature integration theory, features are combined into perceptual objects during what stage of perceptual processing? a. the object formation stage b. the preattentive stage c. the focused attention stage d. the apperceptive stage 15. Suppose that subjects are asked to remember the words that occur in very long sentences taken from the newspaper. For example, subjects might hear a recording that said the words, "When the teams in the championship game were first determined, the Bears were widely regarded as the favorites to win, but the odds changed in favor of the Pythons when it was announced that the Bears' star center had broken his ankle." Suppose that the subjects' task is to recall as many words as possible in the order in which they were spoken. What does the theory of short-term memory predict will be the average number of words that subjects would remember?

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a) 5  2 words b) 7  2 words c) 7  3.4 words d) The theory of short-term memory does not predict how many words will be remembered because limits on the capacity of short-term memory are only known for the situation where the items to be remembered cannot be organized into chunks. 16. In the Brown/Peterson task, the subject is given three letters, e.g., FWR, and a number, e.g., 447. The subject then must count backwards in 3's from the number, 447, 444, 441, 438, ...... After a set period of time, the subject is asked to recall the three letters. The purpose of this task is to measure .... a) how long information can be retained in short-term memory without rehearsal. b) how long information can be retained in short-term memory in everyday situations. c) the amount of information that can be stored in short-term memory. d) the amount of information that can be stored in short-term memory when subjects are prevented from rehearsing the information. 17. How long can information last in STM, assuming that the subject is prevented from rehearsing the information? a) Information in STM lasts about 500 milliseconds (1/2 second), after which all information has been lost through decay or interference. b) Information in STM can last as long as 1 second, after which all information has been lost through decay or interference. c) Information in STM can last as long as 5 seconds, after which all information has been lost through decay or interference. d) Information in STM can last as long as 20 seconds, after which all information has been lost through decay or interference. 18. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the theoretical concepts, "short-term memory" (STM) and "working memory" (WM)? a) STM precedes WM in the flow of information from stimulus to central processing, i.e., information is processed first by STM which is then passed along to WM. b) STM describes the storage component of WM, i.e., information that is briefly stored in STM is manipulated by components of WM. c) STM is specialized for retaining stimulus information for brief periods of time; WM is specialized for retrieving information from long-term memory that is associated with information in STM. d) WM is a more recent psychological construct that evolved out of earlier ideas about STM, i.e., the theories of WM and STM describe the same memory system except that they differ in the structure and processes that are attributed to WM and STM, respectively. 19. The components of working memory are .... a) Sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory. b) Short-term memory, rehearsal, the central executive. c) The phonological loop, the visuospatial sketch pad, the central executive. d) Phonological coding, visual coding, semantic coding.

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20. Lee Brooks' (1968) image scanning experiment had four conditions: (Diagram or Sentence Stimuli)  (Pointing or Vocal Response) The results of the experiment are shown in the following table: Type of Stimulus Diagrams Sentences

Response Mode Pointing Vocal 28.2 11.3 > 9.8


11.3), but the sentence/pointing condition was faster than the sentence/vocal condition (9.8 < 13.8)? a) A vocal response is highly practiced and automatic. The pointing response was not highly practiced, and it was not automatic. b) In general, it takes less time to process the information in a sentence than an equivalent amount of information in a diagram. c) Processing the diagram stimulus and the pointing response both require that information be translated from a visual representation to a verbal representation. This takes time. When the stimulus is a diagram and the response is vocal, only the stimulus has to be translated to a verbal representation, so the response is faster. A similar analysis explains the response times for sentence stimuli. d) The diagram/pointing condition creates competition for cognitive resources in VSP. The sentence/vocal condition creates competition for cognitive resources in PL. The competition for cognitive resources slows down the response relative to the other conditions that do not create a competition for cognitive resources in the same WM component. 21. Suppose that as you enter the bank, you happen to meet a good friend who is leaving the bank. You have a 5 minute conversation about some interesting gossip. When your conversation ends, you enter the bank. While conducting your business in the bank, your attention is fully engaged by your banking business - you do not think about your conversation with your friend at all. Nevertheless, as you leave the bank, you remember the conversation with your friend and you start thinking about it. In which memory system was the information about your conversation stored while you were conducting your business in the bank? a. Most likely, the conversation was rehearsed in the PL while you were doing your business in the bank. b. Most likely, the conversation was retained as a mental image in the VSP while you were doing your business in the bank. c. Most likely, the conversation was retained as an episodic memory in LTM while you were doing your business in the bank. d. Most likely, the conversation was retained as a semantic memory in LTM while you were doing your business in the bank. 22. According to the standard model of memory encoding and consolidation, which of the following are functions performed by the hippocampus? a. transferring information from working memory to long-term memory;

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b. consolidating information in long-term memory (recreating activation patterns for recently stored long-term memories); c. retrieving long-term memories that were recently formed, e.g., during the past week. d. all of the above 23. Hamann et al. (1999) found that emotionally charged pictures caused greater activation of the _____ than did neutral pictures, and pictures that caused the greatest activation of the _____ were most likely to be remembered. The "_____" stands for which brain area? a) prefrontal cortex (PF) b) hippocampus c) amygdala d) cerebellum 24. Suppose you are trying to study for an exam about flashbulb memories. You make notecards that contain 6 key facts about flashbulb memories. Which of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE way to guarantee that you will remember the 6 key facts at the exam? a) Spend 30 minutes studying the 6 key facts. With each fact, you try to think of other things that you know about human memory that are related to these facts. After taking a one-hour break, you spend another 30 minutes studying the 6 key facts, and generating related facts. b) Spend one hour studying the 6 key facts. With each fact, you try to think of other things that you know about human memory that are related to these facts. c) Spend one hour studying the 6 key facts. You repeat the facts to yourself over and over out loud. d) Spend one hour studying the 6 key facts. You read the facts over and over while saying "the, the, the, ...." The next three questions are true/false questions on the following topic: Given that short-term memory (a.k.a. working memory) has limited capacity, why is it possible for a person to remember the details of a complicated story that one has just heard for the first time? For example, suppose you go to a movie that you have never seen before, nor have you previously heard a description of its story. Nevertheless, after you have seen the movie, you can accurately describe many details about the story, who did what, when, why, etc. Below I will list possible reasons why you are able to do this. You should answer either that "yes," the proposed reason is part of the explanation for why you can rapidly encode and remember the story of a movie, or that "no" it is unlikely that the proposed reason contributes to this ability. (I assume that you watched the movie the way you normally would, simply to enjoy it, as opposed to engaging in special memory tricks that you learned in a psychology class or a circus.) 25. You are able to recall many details of the movie because you continue to rehearse these details after the end of the movie. a) Yes, this could be a reason for your ability to remember the details of the movie. b) No, this is NOT a major factor in helping you remember the details of the movie. 26. You are able to recall many details of the movie because you can chunk the details of the story into a smaller number of larger conceptual units (the plot of the story). a) Yes, this could be a reason for your ability to remember the details of the movie.

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b) No, this is NOT a major factor in helping you remember the details of the movie. 27. You are able to recall many details of the movie because details in the story create effective retrieval cues for other details, e.g., if a woman decides that she has to break up with her lover, this serves as a retrieval cue for why she made the decision, how she broke up with him, and what she did after the break up. a) Yes, this could be a reason for your ability to remember the details of the movie. b) No, this is NOT a major factor in helping you remember the details of the movie.

28. In the Deese/Roediger/McDermott paradigm, subjects are presented with a list of words the majority of which are semantically related, e.g., "DRIVE", "HEADLIGHTS", "GASOLINE", "TRAFFIC", "TULIP", "STREET", "STOP", .... Later subjects are asked to recall the words in the list. Notice that most of the words in this particular list have to do with driving a car, but "TULIP"is unusual because it is unrelated to driving a car. What is the main implication for cognitive psychology of the typical findings in this experiment? a) Typically, the results show a primacy effect which indicates that the words at the beginning of the list are often transferred to LTM. b) Typically, the results show a recency effect which indicates that the words at the end of the list are retained in STM once the word displays have ended. c) Both (a) and (b) are true, which indicates that STM and LTM are different memory systems. d) The pattern of errors suggest that people use memory schemas to encode and retrieve memories. 29. The generation effect refers to what aspect of memory? a) Older adults, e.g., people of your parents' generation, do not perform as well on standard memory tests as younger adults. b) Stories that are generated by computer algorithms are harder for subjects to remember in recall tests than stories that are sampled from people's everyday conversations. c) Memory cues that are generated by the subject himself or herself are more effective retrieval cues than cues that are generated by someone else. d) Subjects take longer to generate retrieval cues for lists of long words than for lists of short words. 30. Which of the following explain why spaced practice produces better recall than massed practice? * ("Spaced practice" is also called "distributed practice"; I assume that we have controlled for the total amount of time in spaced practice or in massed practice of the material.)

a) With spaced practice, the studied material is forgotten more between study sessions than with massed practice. Therefore with spaced practice, the subject is forced to learn to make a more difficult retrieval from memory, and this is helpful later when the subject is tested. b) With massed practice, all of the studied material tends to remain more fresh in the mind of the subject during the period of study. Consequently, the subject has a harder time discriminating what she has learned well from what she has not learned well. This causes her to fail to allocate more study to the material that is not well learned.

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c) With massed practice, the subject tends to repeat the same mental associations to the studied material. This happens because the associations that are initially generated tend to remain active so they are easily reactivated during the massed study session. With spaced practice, the initial associations tend to fall to a lower level of activation between sessions. This increases the chance that the subject will generate new associations to the studied material. In the long run, the greater variety of associations increase the chance that the studied material will be recalled at time of test. d) All of the above are true. 31. Suppose that you need to learn how to perform first aid under difficult circumstances, e.g., in a noisy confusing environment when many people are screaming and crying around you. According to the encoding specificity principle, which of the following study methods will produce the best first-aid performance under these difficult circumstances? a) Practice performing the first aid procedures under the difficult circumstances described above. b) Create a mental image of each step that must be performed in the first aid procedure. c) Practice performing the first-aid procedures in an environment that is free from distractions. d) Read stories that describe how others have performed first aid successfully under the difficult circumstances described above. 32. Nader et al. (2000) trained a rat to produce a fear response (freezing) in response to a tone by pairing the tone with an electric shock. Normally this training causes a rat to freeze whenever it hears the tone even without pairing it with an electric shock. Nader et al. found that if they played the tone for the rat on a later day and injected the rat with anisomycin shortly after hearing the tone, then on future occasions the rat would no longer freeze to a tone in the absence of a shock. Why does this occur? a. Anisomycin blocks the freezing response, even days or weeks after the last injection. b. Anisomycin breaks the connection between an conditioned stimulus (tone), the unconditioned stimulus (electric shock) and the response (freezing). c. Memories are vulnerable to change at time of retrieval. The tone caused the rat to reactivate the connection between the tone, the electric shock and the freezing response, and the injection of anisomycin broke the connection to the freezing response while the memory was in the fragile, reactivated state. d. The conditioned response to the tone is a form of implicit memory. Anisomycin blocks the formation of implicit memories but not the formation of explicit memories. 33. Suppose we compare a flashbulb memory to a personally important everyday memory that is equally old (the events happened at about the same time). The main difference between these two types of memory is likely to be .... a) that as time passes, people have a stronger belief that the flashbulb memory is accurate than that the everyday memory is accurate. b) that as time passes, people remember more details accurately about the flashbulb memory than about the everyday memory. c) that as time passes, people have a stronger belief that the everyday memory is accurate than that the flashbulb memory is accurate. d) that as time passes, people remember more details accurately about the everyday memory than about the flashbulb memory. 34. What does the "reminiscence bump" refer to?

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a) A sudden feeling of recollection for a strongly emotional memory from the distant past. b) The finding that a soft blow to the head can actually improve episodic memory. c) The finding that older people typically have more memories from the period between 10 and 30 years of age than from the years just before or just after this period. d) The finding that ERP traces of subjects in recognition memory experiments show a positive peak about 600 milliseconds following presentation of a memory item. 35. A standard line up is a police procedure by which a small group of similar-looking individuals is presented to an eyewitness; the witness sees the entire group and is asked: "Do you see the person who commited the crime in this group? If so, which one is this person?" A sequential line up (also called, sequential show up) is a police procedure by which a series of similar-looking individuals is presented to an eyewitness one at a time; the witness is asked of each person: "Is this the person that you saw commit the crime?" Sometimes photographs are used in place of the actual people. Research has found that the standard line up and the sequential line up are equally likely to produce a correct identification, assuming that the criminal is actually present in the group, but they differ when a witness is shown a group of individuals who are all innocent of commiting the crime in question. Which procedure, the standard line up or the sequential line up, produces fewer mistaken identifications when the criminal is not present in the group? And why is one procedure better than the other? a) The standard line up produces fewer false identifications when the actual criminal is not present in the group. The standard line up places fewer demands on the WM of the witness because the witness can see all of the suspects at once. b) The standard line up produces fewer false identifications when the actual criminal is not present in the group. In the sequential line up, the witness is more likely to make a schema consistent intrusion error, which in this case, amounts to a misidentification of a person who was not present at the crime. c) The sequential line up produces fewer false identifications when the actual criminal is not present in the group. The sequential line up places fewer demands on the WM of the witness because the witness only needs to process the face of one individual at a time. d) The sequential line up produces fewer false identifications when the actual criminal is not present in the group. In the standard line up, the witness may try to pick the person in the group who looks most like the person who committed the crime. In the sequential line up, the witness is much less likely to make these comparisons. 36. Suppose that you see Joe X on campus once in awhile but you haven't noticed him because there hasn't been any reason to pay special attention to him. Later on, you are a witness to a robbery for which Joe X is a suspect. You pick Joe X out of a line up as the person who committed the crime. Later still, it is proved that Joe X could not possibly have been present at the robbery. Which of the following is the most likely cause of your mistaken identification? a) You have committed a schema-consistent intrusion error because you have seen him before. b) The questions you were asked about the robbery mislead you into thinking that the robber was someone you had seen before. c) Your previous contact with Joe X made his face more familiar than the other faces in the line up. You made the mistaken inference that Joe X's face was familiar because it was the face of the robber.

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d) Joe X fits with your concept of a robber because you have had multple previous contacts with him (as in the Roediger/McDermott/Deese paradigm). 37. The misinformation effect refers to the fact that: a) Misleading information presented after a person witnesses an event can change a person's memory for the event. b) If a video contains a mixture of accurate and misleading information about a crime, memories of the misleading information will usually last longer than memories for the accurate information. c) If a video contains a mixture of accurate and misleading information about a crime, people tend to form memories that combine both types of information into a single coherent narrative. d) Witnesses to a crime tend to make errors that are consistent with their preconceptions about what crimes are like. 38. Based on the ideas of the philosopher, Ludwig Wittgenstein, Eleanor Rosch proposed that categories in human cognition have a family resemblance structure. Which of the following is closest to what she meant by this? a) Members of the same category are related by an unobserved common characteristic, just as blood relatives all share common DNA. b) Members of the same category all look alike. c) Members of the same category all satisfy the necessary and sufficient features for the category. d) Members of the same category share many features with each other, even if there is no set of features that are common to every category member and different from all non-category members. Which of the following are true statements about the prototypes of categories? 39. The prototype of a category has all of the properties that define the category and no properties of contrasting categories. a) True b) False 40. If subjects are asked to name examples of a category, examples that are similar to the category prototype are usually named before examples that are less similar to the category prototype, e.g., If asked to name examples of FOOD, an American would typically name BREAD and MEAT before SQUID and SNAILS. a) True b) False 41. Category names prime prototypical objects more than nonPRIME TEST prototypical objects. For example, suppose that response time is measured for how quickly a subject can decide whether an object is BIRD ROBIN living or not living. The table to the right shows a prime word, BIRD OSTRICH BIRD, preceding a test word, either ROBIN or OSTRICH. True or False: BIRD will prime ROBIN more than OSTRICH because robins are more similar to the prototypical bird than are ostriches? a) True b) False

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42. How is the basic level of categories affected by a person's expertise in a particular area? For example, will someone who is an expert in the study of birds have the same basic level in this area as do non-experts? a) For a bird expert, the basic level is at a higher level of abstraction, e.g., "raptors" or "seed-eaters" are basic level categories for a bird expert. b) For a bird expert, the basic level is at the same level as for non-bird experts, i.e., "bird" is the basic level of categorization for bird experts and bird non-experts. c) For a bird expert, the basic level is at more subordinate levels than for non-bird experts, i.e., "goldfinch," "sparrow," "red-tail hawk," etc., are basic level categories for a bird expert. d) A bird expert will not have a basic level in the categorization of birds because he or she knows so much about each bird that they are all seen as individuals. 43. Suppose we see a dog that happens to be a border collie. This doc can be categorized as: LIVING THING / ANIMAL / DOG / COLLIE / BORDER COLLIE (these are all different categories for the same object). For the average person, DOG would be the basic level categorization. According to the theory of basic levels of categorization, where should we experience the greatest increase in the amount of information gained through a categorization? a) The increase from categorizing it as "a living thing" to categorizing it as "an animal." b) The increase from categorizing it as "an animal" to categorizing it as "a dog." c) The increase from categorizing it as "a dog" to categorizing it as "a collie." d) The increase from categorizing it as "a collie" to categorizing it as "a border collie." 44. The hypothesis that some categories have multimodal representations predicts that thinking about a category like "chocolate ice cream cone" should activate what type(s) of representations? a) visual imagery of an ice cream cone b) olfactory and taste imagery pertaining to chocolate ice cream c) motor representations for holding and licking an ice cream cone d) all of the above 45. Your textbook and the lectures discussed an "imagery debate" that influenced much research on mental imagery. What was the main issue in the imagery debate? a) Whether or not the study of mental imagery is appropriate in a scientific theory of human cognition. b) Whether or not people are able to construct mental images of objects, persons, and scenes. c) Whether or not mental images play a functional role in the cognitive processes that people use to answer questions, solve problems, make decisions, etc. d) Whether or not mental images can be decomposed into simpler components like elementary features or geons. 46. Behrmann et al. (1994) discussed the case of a patient, C.K., who suffered from visual agnosia. For example, he could not name a tennis racquet or a stalk of asparagus. Surprisingly, C.K. could make accurate drawings of objects from memory. For example, when asked to draw a "guitar", he produced an easily recognizable drawing of a guitar. Even more surprising, if C.K. were shown his drawing after some time had passed, he could not recognize the object in the drawing. How did Behrmann et al. reconcile these seemingly contradictory findings?

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a) The activity of drawing activated the grasping circuit, a neural pathway that is not required in simply perceiving an object. Therefore it was possible for perception to be impaired but drawing was not. b) Although perceiving an object and imagining an object require similar patterns of brain activity, the brain activity in perceiving an object is initiated by a bottom-up process and the brain activity in imagining an object is initiated by a top-down process. It is possible for the bottom-up process to be blocked while the top-down process is not. c) Although perceiving an object and imagining an object require similar patterns of brain activity, the brain activity associated with perceiving an object is stronger and therefore is more easily impaired. d) It is likely that C.K. had damage to brain areas involved in retrieval from LTM. This would prevent him recalling the experience of drawing the guitar even if he had drawn it himself. 47. Kosslyn et al. (1999) used transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) to disrupt neural signals in human visual cortex. In one condition, their subjects performed a task based on the perception of an object. In another condition, the subjects performed the same task based on a mental image of the object (without perception of the external object). Kosslyn et al. found that application of TMS slowed down the subjects' response time on both tasks, the perception task and imagery task. What conclusion did they draw from this finding? a) Imagining a perceptual experience is correlated with activity in the visual cortex. b) The time it takes to form a mental image can be inferred using mental chronometry. c) The mechanism responsible for imagery involves propositional representations. d) Brain activity in visual cortex plays a causal role in both perception and imagery. 48. In Shepard and Metzler's mental rotation experiment, subjects were asked to decide whether two figures were identical in shape. The experiment measured the response time to say "yes" when the figures were actually identical in shape, or to say "no" when they were different in shape. From the standpoint of cognitive psychology, what was the most important implication of Shepard and Metzler's mental rotation experiment? a) Visual imagery plays a functional role in the performance of certain cognitive tasks; specifically, in the performance of the mental rotation task. b) Imagining an object prior to the presentation of a visual stimulus can facilitate the manipulation of a visual representation of the stimulus in VSP. c) It is harder to rehearse a complex visual representation in VSP than a simple one. d) Propositional information can prime a task that is performed in VSP. 49. What have fMRI studies found when people are asked to either view a picture of a face or imagine that they are looking at the picture of the face? (In the imagine condition, subjects are asked to imagine a face that they have previously studied.) a) Brain activity is identical when people view a face or imagine the same face. b) Brain activity is similar but not identical when people view a face or imagine the same face. c) Brain activity is quite different when people view a face or imagine the same face. Specifically, viewing a face produces activity in the fusiform face area (FFA), whereas imagining a face does not. d) When perceiving a face, brain activity is centered in the visual cortex and the temporal lobe. When imagining a face, brain activity is primarily centered in the prefrontal cortex.

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50. Metcalfe and Wiebe (1987) studied whether people could anticipate how close they were to solving algebra problems and the cheap necklace problem (an insight problem - also known as the chain problem). What was their main finding? a) People who experience insight rarely know if they are close to solving a problem, even shortly before they solve it. b) In general, people are better at inductive reasoning than at deductive reasoning. c) A period of incubation (working on a completely unrelated activity) is more beneficial when working on an insight problem than when working on an algebra problem. d) People are generally better at searching a problem space than at discovering an alternative problem representation. 51. Which of the following is a possible cause of incubation effects in problem solving? a) b) c) d)

long-term potentiation forgetting of inappropriate strategies that were active during initial attempts at problem solving automatization of problem solving strategies that were used prior to the incubation period. the generation effect

52. How did Gick and Holyoak get subjects to see the common schema in different versions of the radiation problem? In other words, what experimental treatment was most effective at schema induction? a) Instructing subjects to engage in elaborative encoding of the fortress problem and its solution. b) Suggesting to the subjects that mental imagery might help to find a solution to the radiation problem. c) Having subjects study several analogous problems, and asking the subjects to write summaries of the ways in which the problems were similar. d) Suggesting to the subjects that principles of probability might be relevant to finding a solution. 53. Which of the following is TRUE about analogical reasoning? a) People are better at analogical transfer tasks if they first must compare several similar problem solutions in a meaningful way. b) An expert in physics will usually be better at seeing analogies in fields that are unrelated to physics, like plant biology. c) Once people know the solution to the source problem, they can usually spontaneously map that solution onto the target problem without any hints. d) People tend to be worse at analogical reasoning in real life compared to in experimental tests. 54. Analogical reasoning has been studied in controlled laboratory settings but also in real-world settings such as the work of engineers who are trying to solve real engineering problems. Kevin Dunbar has noticed that these two types of studies appear to contradict each other. He has called this contradiction the "analogical paradox." What is the analogical paradox? In the following answer choices, I will refer to the former studies as experimental studies and the latter as in vivo studies. Thus the question is, what is the main contradiction between experimental studies and in vivo studies of analogical reasoning? a) Experimental studies suggest that people have difficulty constructing a mapping from base to target problem, whereas in vivo studies suggest that the main difficulty is in applying the analogy.

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b) Experimental studies suggest that the people ignore past experience when drawing analogies whereas in vivo studies suggest that people rely heavily on past experience. c) Experimental studies suggest that people are very prone to functional fixedness whereas in vivo studies find little evidence for functional fixedness. d) Experimental studies suggest that people have difficulty noticing potential analogies in reasoning problems that are presented in a laboratory. In vivo studies suggest that people notice analogies frequently in the context of real-world problem solving. Which of the following are true statements about the way that experts and novices solve problems? 55. In general, experts have larger working memory capacity than do novices. a) True b) False 56. If the problems are drawn from the field of the experts' expertise, experts spend more time analyzing the problems than do novices. a) True b) False 57. If the problems are drawn from the field of the experts' expertise, the experts group problems according to the principles that they illustrate; novices group problems according to their superficial characteristics. a) True b) False 58. If the problems are drawn from a field that is different from the experts' expertise, the experts still do better than the novices, e.g., physics experts do better at solving biology problems than do novices at biology. a) True b) False 59. Which of the following is an example of inductive inference? a) Guessing which number will be drawn in a lottery. b) Working out a solution to the Cheap Necklace Problem (link 4 strands of chains into a necklace) c) Working out what is killing salmon based on information concerning their habitat, their food sources, and their predators such as fisherman and whales. d) Solving a simultaneous equation problem in algebra. 60. In the Linda problem, people tend to judge that Linda is more likely to be a feminist bank teller than a bank teller (without regard to whether she is a feminist). Why does this violation of the conjunction rule support the hypothesis that people use a representativeness heuristic in probability judgment? a) People erroneously believe that the probability of an event is increased by increasing the number of characteristics in the event. This belief is predicted by the hypothesis that people use a representativeness heuristic in probability judgment.

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b) The focusing illusion causes people to overemphasize the typical characteristics of a feminist when judging the probability that Linda is a feminist bank teller. Consequently they forget that she may be a non-feminist bank teller. c) The description of Linda is more similar to the stereotype of a feminist bank teller than to the stereotype of a bank teller. The representativeness heuristic claims that probability judgments will be based on similarity judgments, and the violation of the conjunction rule supports this claim. d) Because people are subject to a confirmation bias, they study the description of Linda for evidence that she is a feminist bank teller. This makes it seem more likely that she is a feminist bank teller than that she is a bank teller without regard to whether she is a feminist. 61. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of the availability heuristic on probability judgment? a) Using the availability heuristic always leads to inaccurate probability judgments. b) Using the availability heuristic often leads to accurate probability judgments, but it leads to inaccurate probability judgments when factors that are unrelated to event frequency affect ease of recall. c) Using the availability heuristic often leads to inaccurate probability judgments, but it can lead to accurate probability judgments when subjects are reminded to think about analogous reasoning problems. d) Using the availability heuristic always leads to accurate probability judgments. The only exception are people with damage to the prefrontal cortex. 62. In the lawyer/engineer problem, Jack is described to have characteristics that are more typical of an engineer than a lawyer. When people are asked to predict whether Jack is a lawyer or an engineer, they often ignore the base rate that is stated explicitly in the problem (high engineer base rate: 30 lawyers and 70 engineers; low engineer base rate: 70 lawyers and 30 engineers). What was Kahneman and Tversky's explanation for why subjects in this study tended to ignore base rate? a) Subjects base their prediction on the similarity of Jack to the stereotype of an engineer. The base rate plays no role in this similarity judgment. Therefore it tends to be ignored. b) Although Jack is more similar to an engineer, it is not certain whether he is an engineer or a lawyer. In this situation, people adopt a conservative strategy of assuming that he is equally likely to be an engineer or a lawyer. c) Subjects believe that base rates are irrelevant to predictions. Therefore they are generally ignored. d) Subjects often assume that the base rates for different categories are equal even when they are not. Therefore they behave as if they are ignoring base rates. 63. A framing effect has been found if .... a) people choose a less risky option rather than an option with higher risk and greater potential gain. b) people base probability judgments on similarity to a prototype rather than on principles of probability theory. c) people prefer to save lives rather than to save money. d) different descriptions of the same choices result in different preferences between the choices.

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64. People's preferences on the Asian disease problem were affected by whether the possible outcomes were described as "lives saved" or as "lives lost." Why does changing the description of the outcomes change people's typical preference for the safer or more risky option? a) In general, people are risk averse for gains and risk seeking for losses. Describing the outcomes as "lives saved" emphasizes what can be gained, thereby causing subjects to be more risk averse. b) Describing the outcomes as "lives saved" makes people more inclined to try to save as many lives as possible. c) The description in terms of "lives lost" reminds the subjects that they are not required to look for the safest choice. d) The description in terms of "lives lost" makes the image of people who have died in other disasters more available at the time of the choice. 65. The heuristics and biases movement proposed that people use heuristics like availability and representativeness to judge probabilities. It also pointed out that people's decisions are prone to framing effects, omission biases, focusing illusions, and so forth. The most important point made by the heuristics and biases movement is .... a) People's judgments and decisions are filled with errors. b) People's judgments and decisions are seriously biased. c) People use heuristic strategies to make judgments and decisions rather than strategies based on rational models. d) All of the above. 66. Consider the following abstract version of the four-card problem. You see the following 4 cards in front of you: E , K , 6 , 3 . Each card has a letter on one side and a digit on the other side. You are asked to check whether the following rule has been obeyed: If a card has a vowel on one side, it has an even number on the other side. You must turn over only the cards that are needed to check whether this this rule has been obeyed, and no cards that are not needed to check whether this rule has been obeyed. What is the correct response and the typical response to this problem? a) Correct response: Turn over E . Typical response: Turn over E alone or E and 6 . b) Correct response: Turn over E and 3 . Typical response: Turn over E alone or E and 6 . c) Correct response: Turn over E and 3 . Typical response: Turn over E alone or E and 3 . d) Correct response: Turn over E and 6 . Typical response: Turn over E alone or E and 6 . 67. Why is performance on the four-card problem improved when the content of the problem invokes the permission schema? a) Invoking the permission schema helps the subjects change the problem representation to one that is more likely to yield a solution. b) The permission schema primes valid conditional reasoning. c) In general, performance on problems is better when the problem is stated concretely than when it is stated abstractly. d) The requirements for checking whether an individual has permission to perform an action are identical to the requirements for checking whether a conditional statement is true.

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68. Mr. Jones believes that using a cell phone causes brain tumors. Which of the following would be the strongest evidence that Mr. Jones is prone to a confirmation bias, at least with respect to cell phone usage? a) Mr. Jones pays close attention to any reports that suggest that cell phone usage causes brain tumors. b) Mr. Jones pays close attention to any reports that suggest that cell phone usage does NOT cause brain tumors. c) Mr. Jones ignores any reports that suggest that cell phone usage does NOT cause brain tumors. d) Mr. Jones refuses to use a cell phone. The dual systems approach to thinking proposes that reasoning is based on two different systems or types of reasoning. (There is a debate about whether it is better to call them "systems" or "types"; I will call them "systems" here.) One system is intuitive; the other system is reflective. The following True/False questions pertain to the distinction between System I (the intuitive system) and System II (the reflective system). 69. The intuitive system (System I) is typically slower to process information than the reflective system (System II). a) True b) False 70. The processes in the intuitive system (System I) are typically unconscious and automatic. a) True b) False

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LAST NAME: _______________________________________ UW ID: __________________ (Write your last name & ID in case this page gets separated from the rest of the exam.)

71. ESSAY QUESTION (4 points): This question has to do with the availability heuristic. (i) Explain what is the availability heuristic. If someone uses the availability heuristic to judge the probability of an event, e.g., the probability that she will enjoy attending a party, how will this person judge the probability of this event? (ii) Why does the use of an availability heuristic cause people to make errors when judging the probability of an event? (iii) Explain why people often exhibit an egocentric bias. To simplify the task of writing an answer, let M stand for a man and let W stand for a woman, where M and W are a married couple. Explain why M and W are likely to have an egocentric bias with respect to a common task like washing the dishes (abbreviate as WD). Assume that we have asked M and W to judge what percentage of the time they perform WD and we have found that the sum of M's judgment of M's contributions and W's judgment of W's contribution is greater than 100%. How can this tendency be explained by the avaiability heuristic? • Suggestion: Read the essay question carefully before starting to answer it; it may even be helpful to make a quick list of the points you want to make in your answer before you start. • When you answer part (iii), you don't have to explain how a psychologist would ask M and W to rate the percentage of time they perform WD; assume that the methodology for collecting the data has already been explained.

This is the end of the exam. Make sure that you have circled your quiz section near the top of page 1. **If you need more space to write your answer to the essay question, you can continue on the back of this sheet or raise your hand to ask for some scratch paper.