EOC - Unit 5 Review - DNA, RNA, Protein Synthesis

EOC - Unit 5 Review - DNA, RNA, Protein Synthesis Benchmark SC.912.L.16.3 Describe the basic process of DNA replication and how it relates to the tran...
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EOC - Unit 5 Review - DNA, RNA, Protein Synthesis Benchmark SC.912.L.16.3 Describe the basic process of DNA replication and how it relates to the transmission and conservation of the genetic information. Also Assesses: SC.912.L.16.4 Explain how mutations in the DNA sequence may or may not result in phenotypic change. Explain how mutations in gametes may result in phenotypic changes in offspring. SC.912.L.16.5 Explain the basic processes of transcription and translation and how they result in the expression of genes. SC.912.L.16.9 Explain how and why the genetic code is universal and is common to almost all organisms. Benchmark Clarifications - Students will: - describe the process of DNA replication and/or its role in the transmission and conservation of genetic information. - describe gene and chromosomal mutations. - explain how mutations may or may not result in a phenotypic change. - explain the basic processes of transcription and/or translation and their roles in the expression of genes. - explain how or why the genetic code (mRNA codon chart) is common to almost all organisms. - explain how similarities in the genetic codes of organisms are due to common ancestry and the process of inheritance. Content Limits: Items requiring the analysis of base pairs for gene mutations are limited to changes in a single gene. Items may refer to, but will not assess, the cell cycle, mitosis, and/or meiosis. Items will not require memorization of specific conditions resulting from chromosomal mutations. Items may refer to the process of meiosis in the context of mutations but will not assess meiosis in isolation. Items addressing transcription or translation will not require specific knowledge of initiation, elongation, or termination. Part A: Sample Questions: 1) Which of the following statements describes processes that occur during DNA replication? A. A DNA sequence is read by RNA polymerase, which produces another RNA strand complementary to the first strand. B. Two free-floating single strands of DNA are joined by polymerase. The polymerase finds the point at which the two strands will match up into a double strand. C. Messenger RNA are decoded by a ribosome to produce an amino acid chain. In the cell's cytoplasm, transfer RNA joins the messenger RNA, forming a polypeptide. D. A double-stranded DNA molecule is unwound into single strands. Polymerase matches the right nucleotides to the single strand so that each forms a double strand of DNA. 2) The genetic code is nearly universal, meaning that almost all organisms use the same genetic code. Which statement does NOT help explain why the genetic code is nearly universal? A. All organisms encode their genes using DNA or RNA. B. All organisms can grow, respond to stimuli, and reproduce. C. All organisms use the same codon for the same amino acid. D. All organisms are genetically related to all other organisms. 3) DNA mutations can be present in a gene for many reasons. Which of the following does NOT describe a reason genetic mutations may exist in a gene? A. When a cell dies, the DNA in the cell's nucleus can mutate. B. Exposure to chemicals or radiation can cause mutation in DNA. C. Mutations in DNA can be passed down from a parent to a child. D. Polymerase can make a mistake in matching nucleotides during replication. 4) Mutations in an organism's DNA may be either beneficial or harmful. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of DNA mutation? A. DNA mutation is an alteration in DNA replication that always results in phenotypic change. Mutations are usually due to radiation or other environmental factors. B. DNA mutation is a change in the way that genes reproduce themselves, which may or may not affect phenotypic characteristics. Mutations are usually due to environmental factors or heredity. C. DNA mutation is a change in the gene sequence, which sometimes results in phenotypic change. Mutations can be due to environmental factors, heredity, or a mistake in DNA replication. D. DNA mutation is an alteration in the nucleus of a cell that makes certain genes unable to be copied, and they result in phenotypic change. Mutations are usually due to viruses and environmental factors. 5) Which of the following accurately describes the difference between transcription and translation? A. In transcription, the genetic code of a DNA molecule is first encoded. Translation is the process of converting the DNA code into code that RNA can use. B. In transcription, an amino acid chain is encoded in a DNA molecule. Translation is the process of turning the amino acids into nucleic acids in an RNA molecule. C. In transcription, the genetic code of a DNA molecule is transferred to a messenger RNA molecule. Translation is the process of creating an amino acid chain using the encoded messenger RNA. D. In transcription, a double helix DNA molecule is split into two separate single strands. Translation is the process of joining each single DNA strand with a single strand of matching RNA.

6) Which statement correctly describes the difference between DNA transcription and DNA replication? A. DNA replication results in a single-stranded RNA molecule, while DNA transcription results in two copies of a double helix of DNA. B. DNA replication results in two copies of a double helix of DNA, while DNA transcription results in a single-stranded RNA molecule. C. DNA replication results in a single copy of a double helix of DNA, while DNA transcription results in two copies of a single-stranded RNA molecule. D. DNA replication results in two copies of a single-stranded RNA molecule, while DNA transcription results in a single copy of a double helix of DNA. 7) Which of the following statements does not describe a difference between the DNA of prokaryotes and the DNA of eukaryotes? A. Prokaryotic DNA is shorter and less complex than eukaryotic DNA. B. Prokaryotic DNA chains have two nucleotides, eukaryotic DNA has four. C. Prokaryotic DNA has single chromosomes; eukaryotic DNA has multiple chromosomes. D. Prokaryotic DNA is arranged in circular structures; eukaryotic DNA consists of linear strands. 8) Mutations in DNA may or may not result in a change in the phenotype of an organism. In which of the following situations will a mutation appear in the phenotype of an individual? A. The genetic code for protein synthesis has not been altered. B. The mutation occurs in an organism which is past reproductive age. C. The mutation is recessive and is present in one copy of the diploid gene. D. The mutation is recessive and is present in both copies of the diploid gene. 9) In a family with four children, both parents and three of the children have brown eyes; however, the fourth child's eyes are blue. Given these facts, which of the following statements is false? A. Both parents carry one blue-eye gene and one brown-eye gene. B. The brown-eye gene is dominant and the blue-eye gene is recessive. C. The blue-eyed child has one blue-eye gene and one brown-eye gene. D. It is possible that one of the brown-eyed children has two brown-eye genes. 10) The genetic code is universal, and is composed of nucleotide triplets. Which of the following lists the four types of nucleotide bases found in the nucleotide triplets of a single strand of DNA? A. ribose, thymine, glucose, uracil B. adenine, cytosine, guanine, uracil C. adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine D. adenine, deoxyribose, guanine, ribose 11) Why can bacteria recognize a human gene and then produce a human protein? A. DNA replication in bacteria and humans is the same. B. Bacterial cells contain the same organelles as human cells. C. The basic components of DNA are the same in humans and bacteria. D. Bacterial cells and human cells contain the same kind of chromosomes. Benchmark SC.912.L.16.10 Evaluate the impact of biotechnology on the individual, society, and the environment, including medical and ethical issues. Benchmark Clarifications - Students will: - evaluate examples and/or explain the possible impact of biotechnology on the individual, society, and/or the environment. Content Limits Items may assess current issues but will not require knowledge of specific biotechnologies or specific medical issues. Items assessing the possible impacts of biotechnology will not assess monetary impacts. Part B: Sample Questions: 1) The Human Genome Project began in 1989 with the purpose of identifying the thousands of genes of the human genome. The first draft of the genome was released in 2000 and was completed in 2003. Which of the following describes the main benefit of mapping the human genome? A. the ability to clone humans B. the ability to design new human genes C. the ability to easily identify genetically-based diseases D. the ability to patent specific human genes. 2) About one-sixth of the world's population does not have access to clean drinking water. Biotechnology-based tests and filters for drinking water are being developed to help alleviate this problem. What is the most direct effect of the lack of clean drinking water on this portion of our population? A. Lack of clean water can lead to an increase in poverty and malnutrition. B. Crops grown with unsanitary water will likely spread disease when eaten. C. The risk of contracting water-borne diseases, such as cholera, increases D. Without access to clean water, the risk of dehydration, increases.

3) Several years ago, some crop plants were genetically modified to be immune to the effects of glyphosate, a weed killer that worked well on weeds. As a result, the crop could be sprayed with glyphosate, and the weeds would be killed, but the crop would survive. From an ecological point of view, which of the following is most important to determine prior to planting the resistant crop in farm fields? A. What effect does the presence of glyphosate-resistant crops have on insect populations in adjacent fields? B. Is it possible for the gene for resistance to glyphosate to pass from the crop plants to weeds under natural conditions? C. Does the genetically modified crop produce yields that are better in quality and quantity than those of unmodified varieties? D. Is the gene for resistance stable enough in the crop plant that it will be passed to the next generation when the crop plant reproduces? 4) Great strides are being made in identifying genetic markers for disease within the human genome. Which of the following would be considered an ethical misuse of this information? A. hospitals using genetic information about specific patients in order to develop treatments for those individuals B. individuals deciding not to have children based on the results of genetic testing showing they carry the allele for a fatal disease C. insurance companies refusing to insure a person based on information they required about the person's genome indicating a high risk for a certain disease D. doctors informing their patients that they are likely to develop a debilitating illness for which there is no treatment based on patientrequested genetic tests 5) What do all forms of biotechnology have in common? A. They all involve modifying an organism's genetic makeup. B. They all create intense public debate when they are first introduced. C. They all make use of living organisms to do a job or provide a service. D. They all combine the use of machines with living organisms in some way. 6) Sandra is a 30-year-old woman. After medical images and blood tests, Sandra's mother has just been diagnosed with breast cancer. Her mother's mother died of breast cancer several years ago. Should Sandra be concerned that she might be at higher risk for breast cancer herself? A. Yes. Some forms of breast cancer have been linked to a gene mutation which she may have inherited from her mother's side of the family. B. Yes. While there does not seem to be a genetic link with breast cancer, she has been exposed to the same environmental factors as the rest of her family. C. No. The causes of breast cancer have not been completely identified so she is probably at no greater risk than any other woman in the population. D. No. Detection of and treatments for breast cancer have improved so dramatically in recent years that it is unlikely she would develop breast cancer. 7) In the aftermath of a natural disaster, such as severe flooding or a major hurricane, aid agencies make it a priority to bring drinking water to the affected population immediately. Biotechnology-based tests and filters for clean water become especially useful after natural disasters. Why is drinking water a priority if the flood or hurricane has left huge amounts of water behind? A. Bringing water is a show of concern and allows the aid agencies to get into affected areas and assess the needs of the population. B. Many life-threatening diseases such as cholera and dysentery are transmitted from person to person through contaminated drinking water. C. The water left behind is generally untreated and therefore people refuse to drink it, leading to problems caused by heat and dehydration. D. People tend to forget to drink enough water when they are in stressful situations which can make any diseases they already have much worse. 8) In what way is genetic engineering of crops similar to the more traditional practice of artificial selection of crop varieties? A. Both methods result in a crop that has some desirable characteristic. B. Both techniques produce plants that have higher yields than previously. C. In both cases, two different crop plants are crossed to develop a new one. D. In both procedures, genes from unrelated organisms can be added to the plant. 9) Treating most diseases involves a certain amount of trial and error, because some drugs or treatments are more effective for some individuals than for others. How could more precise information about variations within the human genome help doctors? A. Doctors would be able to tell patients whether or not they would survive a disease based on the patient's DNA. B. Knowing which drugs or treatments worked best on specific genotypes would help pinpoint treatments more quickly. C. It would allow doctors to alter a patient's genome so that he or she could be treated more effectively with current drugs. D. Knowing the patient's genome would provide information about how long the treatment would take once the correct drug was identified. 10) Rice is a staple food source for much of the world's population. At present, there is a limited region in which rice can be grown successfully, and if world climates change as scientists predict, the rice-growing region will become even more limited. Which of the following is the most likely way in which biotechnology could be employed to keep rice harvests from declining? A. identifying new areas with soil fertile enough for rice production B. developing clean energy sources to reduce CO2 production worldwide C. seeding clouds with dry ice to produce more rainfall where it is needed D. genetically engineering rice crops that can grow well in warmer climates

11) While genetic engineering has positive benefits, there are also concerns associated with widespread use of genetic engineering in agriculture. If many farmers begin to plant more genetically modified crops that have an increased tolerance to insects, which of the following may result? A. an increase in the use of pesticides B. a decrease in genetic diversity of the crops C. an increase in the contamination of the water supply D. a decrease in crop productivity on these treated fields Part C: Additional Sample Questions: 1. A segment of a DNA strand has the following bases: TAC GAT. What is the complementary strand of DNA? A . UAG CAU B. TAG CAT C. ATG CTA D. AUG CUA 2. In DNA, adenine pairs up with thymine and guanine with cytosine. If adenine makes up 40% of the bases in DNA, then what percentage of the bases in DNA does cytosine make up? A. 10% B. 20% C. 40% D. 50% 3. RNA contains which bases? A. adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil B. adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine C. thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil D. adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil 4. The process of copying a gene's DNA sequence into a sequence of RNA is called A. replication. B. transcription. C. translation. D. PCR 5. Each organism has a unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules of A. protein. B. carbohydrates. C. enzymes. D. DNA. 6.The primary function of DNA is to A. make proteins. B. store and transmit genetic information. C. control chemical processes within cells. D. prevent mutations. 7. Watson and Crick built models that demonstrated that A. DNA and RNA have the same structure. B. DNA is made of two chains in a double helix. C. guanine forms hydrogen bonds with adenine. D. thymine forms hydrogen bonds with cytosine. 8.The base-pairing rules state that the following are base pairs in DNA: A. adenine—thymine; uracil—cytosine. B. adenine—thymine; guanine—cytosine. C. adenine—guanine; thymine—cytosine. D. uracil—thymine; guanine—cytosine. 9.The addition of nucleotides(base) to form a complementary strand of DNA A. Is catalyzed by DNA polymerase. B. prevents separation of complementary strands of RNA. mutagens. C. is accomplished only in the presence of tRNA. D. is the responsibility of the complementary DNA 10.During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be A. TTGCATG. B. CCTAGCT. C . AAGTATC. D. GGATCGA. 11.Which of the following is NOT true about DNA replication? A. It must occur before a cell can divide. B. The process is catalyzed by enzymes called DNA mutagens. C. The double strand unwinds while it is being duplicate D. Two complementary strands are duplicated. 12. The enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the exposed DNA template bases are A. replicases. B. helicases. C. DNA polymerases. D. nucleotidases. 13. RNA differs from DNA in that RNA A. is sometimes single-stranded. B. contains a different sugar molecule. C. contains the nitrogenous base uracil. D. All of the above 14. Genes contain instructions for assembling A. purines. B. nucleosomes. C. proteins. D. pyrimidines. 15. DNA replication results in two DNA molecules, A. each with two new strands. B. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands. C. each with one new strand and one original strand. D. each with two original strands. 16. The bases of one strand of DNA match-up with the bases of the second strand according to base pairing rules, therefore, the two strands are said to be A. oppositely charged B. complementary C. identical D. diagonal 17. A DNA strand with the sequence AACGTAACG is transcribed. What is the sequence of the mRNA molecule synthesized? A) AACGTAACG B) UUGCAUUGC C) AACGUAACG D) TTGCATTGC 18. Transcription and translation of a gene composed of 30 nucleotides would form a protein containing no more than ----- amino acids. (Hint –how many nucleotides/bases in an amino acid) A. 10 B. 15 C.60 D. 90. 19. The transcribing enzyme is: A. Ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. RNA polymerase. D. amino-acyl transferase. 20. Transfer RNA's bind during translation by the: A. codon. B. anticodon. C. template D. protein 21. Which molecule contains the genetic code? A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. rRNA 22. The function of tRNA: A. synthesize DNA. B. synthesize mRNA. C. form ribosomes. D. transfer amino acids to ribosomes. 23. Which of the following types of RNA carries instructions for making proteins? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. All of the above 24. Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC was made? a. CUCAAGUGCUUC b. GAGUUCACGAAG c. GAGTTCACGAAG d. AGACCTGTAGGA 25. An error in DNA replication can cause: A. mutations. B. genetic variation. C. cancer. D. All of the above 26. mRNA= CUCAAGUGCUUC .The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA in the strand are : A. GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG. B. GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG. C. CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU. D. CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.

27. In order for protein synthesis to occur, mRNA must migrate to the: A. ribosomes. B. RNA polymerase. C. lac operon. D. heterochromatin. 28. Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a(n) A. mutagen. B. anticodon. C. codon. D. exon. 29. What happens during the process of translation? A. Messenger RNA is made from DNA B, The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins C. Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA. D. Copies of DNA molecules are made. 30. A mutagen is: A. a chemical or physical agent that induces mutations B. an enzyme that repairs mutations C. a molecule which stabilizes DNA thus prevents mutations from occurring D. Any negative influence 31. How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids? A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12 32.The enzyme used in the polymerase chain reaction is: A. restriction endonuclease. B. reverse transcriptase. C. DNA polymerase D. RNA polymerase 33.A method used to distinguish DNA of one individual from another is A. polymerase chain reaction. B. cDNA. C. reverse transcriptase. D. restriction fragment length polymorphism 34.Which of the following is an example of a genetically engineered organism? A. Seedless fruits resulting from grafting of one plant onto another B. A plant that naturally possesses medicinal properties. C. A new plant variety created by cross-pollination D. A plant that received external DNA to produce natural insecticides 35. All fragments cut by most restriction endonucleases have: A) complementary double-stranded ends B) supplementary single-stranded ends C) double-stranded "sticky" ends D) complementary single-stranded ends E) double-stranded supplementary ends 36. Bacteria are the "workhorses" of genetic engineering because they -----. A. Reproduce very slowly and accurately B. can readily take up plasmids containing human genes + then produce the human proteins encoded by those genes C. are always homozygous D. they provide the polymerase for the polymerase chain reaction 37. Samples of DNA that were cut with a restriction enzyme during DNA fingerprinting in a crime lab utilizes a technique to produce the bands of DNA is called: A. gene splicing B. gel-electrophoresis C. genetic engineering D. cloning 38.Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to their -----. A. base sequence B. size C. electrical charge D. percentage of labeled nucleotides 39.Which is a use of genetically engineered bacteria? A. identifying the remains of an unknown person B. developing a DNA fingerprint for blood left at a crime scene C. making human insulin for diabetics D. producing corn that is resistant to herbicides 40.Which enzymes are used to cut large segments of DNA into fragments for DNA fingerprinting? A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase C. reverse transcriptase D. restriction enzymes