checkpoint

156-215.77 checkpoint Number: 156-215.77 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min http://www.gratisexam.com/ Sections 1. Volume A 2. Volume B 3. Volum...
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156-215.77 checkpoint Number: 156-215.77 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min

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Sections 1. Volume A 2. Volume B 3. Volume C 4. Volume D

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Exam A QUESTION 1 You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most cost-effective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline? A. B. C. D.

SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor SmartLSM and SmartUpdate SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2 You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After awhile, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this? A. B. C. D.

Run fwm dbexport -l filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -l filename to import the users. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group. Restore the entire database, except the user database.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?

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A. B. C. D.

Database Revision Control Policy Package management dbexport/dbimport upgrade_export/upgrade_import

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 Your Security Management Server fails and does not reboot. One of your remote Security Gateways managed by the Security Management Server reboots. What occurs with the remote Gateway after reboot?

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A. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, all traffic is allowed through the Gateway. B. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, no traffic is allowed through the Gateway. C. The remote Gateway fetches the last installed Security Policy locally and passes traffic normally. The Gateway will log locally, since the Security Management Server is not available. D. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway uses the local Security Policy, but does not log traffic. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 5 What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway? A. In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting. B. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate. C. Define two log servers on the R77 Gateway object. Enable Log Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits. D. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R77 Gateway object. Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6 Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAiA from the command line? A. B. C. D.

ifconfig sysconfig cpconfig dhcp_cfg

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties and testing. He managed to lock himself out of his account. How can you unlock this account? A. Type fwm unlock_admin from the Security Management Server command line. B. Type fwm unlock_admin -u from the Security Gateway command line. C. Type fwm lock_admin -u from the Security Management Server command line.

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D. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties. He managed to lock all administrators out of their accounts. How should you unlock these accounts? A. B. C. D.

Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/. Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import. Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the Security Management Server command line. Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account; right-click on each administrator object and select unlock.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 You are the Security Administrator for ABC-Corp. A Check Point Firewall is installed and in use on GAiA. You are concerned that the system might not be retaining your entries for the interfaces and routing configuration. You would like to verify your entries in the corresponding file(s) on GAiA. Where can you view them? Give the BEST answer. A. B. C. D.

/etc/sysconfig/netconf.C /etc/conf/route.C /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ethx /etc/sysconfig/network

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10 When using GAiA, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?

As expert user, issue these commands:

A. B. C. D.

Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C and put the new MAC address in the field As expert user, issue the command: # IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56 Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11 Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The Firewall protecting Human Resources' servers should have its own Policy Package. These rules must be installed on this machine and not on the Internet Firewall. How can this be accomplished? A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a Firewall are defined by the selection in the Rule Base row Install On. B. When selecting the correct Firewall in each line of the Rule Base row Install On, only this Firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install on Target. C. In the menu of SmartDashboard, go to Policy > Policy Installation Targets and select the correct firewall via Specific Targets. D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point Firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install on

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Target. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12 You have a diskless appliance platform. How do you keep swap file wear to a minimum?

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A. B. C. D.

Issue FW-1 bases its package structure on the Security Management Server, dynamically loading when the firewall is booted. The external PCMCIA-based flash extension has the swap file mapped to it, allowing easy replacement. Use PRAM flash devices, eliminating the longevity. A RAM drive reduces the swap file thrashing which causes fast wear on the device.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13 Your R77 primary Security Management Server is installed on GAiA. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every 48 hours. How do you create this schedule? A. On a GAiA Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished by configuring the command fw logswitch via the cron utility. B. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object's Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.

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C. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object's Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object. D. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object's Global Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch. Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14 Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R77 configuration? A. B. C. D.

Policy Package Management Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server Execute command upgrade_export Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15 Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restoration of a R77 configuration? A. B. C. D.

upgrade_import cpinfo -recover cpconfig fwm dbimport -p

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 16 When restoring R77 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored? A. B. C. D.

SIC Certificates Licenses Route tables Global properties

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17 Your organization's disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the new distributed R77 installation benefits. Your plan must meet the following required and desired objectives: Required ObjectivE. The Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours. Desired ObjectivE. The R77 components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up at least once a week. Desired ObjectivE. Back up R77 logs at least once a week. Your disaster recovery plan is as follows: - Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each night on the Security Management Servers. - Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the files created by the command upgrade_export. - Configure the GAiA back up utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night. - Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each Saturday night on the log servers. - Configure an automatic, nightly logswitch. - Configure the organization's routine back up software to back up the switched logs every night. Upon evaluation, your plan: A. B. C. D.

Meets the required objective and only one desired objective. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective. Does not meet the required objective. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.

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Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 18 Your company is running Security Management Server R77 on GAiA, which has been migrated through each version starting from Check Point 4.1. How do you add a new administrator account? A. B. C. D.

Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator Using SmartDashboard or cpconfig Using the Web console on GAiA under Product configuration, select Administrators Using cpconfig on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19 Your perimeter Security Gateway's external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:

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Required. Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using 200.200.200.5. The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet. Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements? A. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5. B. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3. C. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3. D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects to a group object. Create a manual NAT rule like the following: Original source - group object; Destination - any; Service - any; Translated source - 200.200.200.5; Destination - original; Service - original. Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 20 Because of pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this? A. B. C. D.

Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties. Routing is not configured correctly. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under Manual NAT Rules.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 21 You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway's external interface. You browse to the Google Website from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker? A. B. C. D.

Two, one for outbound, one for inbound Only one, outbound Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection Only one, inbound

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22 Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point's Hide Network Address Translation method? A. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address B. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation C. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address

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D. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23 Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP- assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?

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A. B. C. D.

Hide Static Destination Static Source Dynamic Destination

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24 NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects? A. HTTP Logical Server B. Gateway C. Address Range

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D. Host Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25 Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ? A. B. C. D.

Dynamic Source Address Translation Hide Address Translation Port Address Translation Static Destination Address Translation

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26 You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewall external interface and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway? A. B. C. D.

Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall's external address. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 27 After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by anti-spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause? A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal - Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side. B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External. C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External. Change topology to Others +. D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal - Network defined by IP and Mask. Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side. Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28 Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well? A. B. C. D.

Allow bi-directional NAT Automatic ARP configuration Translate destination on client-side Enable IP Pool NAT

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. http://www.gratisexam.com/

You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet? A. B. C. D.

Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30 You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from 10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway's external interface.

What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers' public IP addresses?

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A. B. C. D.

When connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x, configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the Security Gateway DMZ interface. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers. When trying to access DMZ servers, configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind the DMZ's interface.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31 An internal host initiates a session to the Google.com website and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of __________. A. B. C. D.

client side NAT source NAT destination NAT None of these

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32 A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the _________. A. B. C. D.

destination on server side source on server side source on client side destination on client side

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A http://www.gratisexam.com/

Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 33 A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server? A. B. C. D.

Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties. Nothing else must be configured. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway's upstream router.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34 When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens? A. B. C. D.

Nothing happens. The destination is modified. The destination port is modified. The source port is modified.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?

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A. B. C. D.

Phase two key negotiation Address translation Log Consolidation Engine User data base corruption

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36 Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT. Exhibit:

A. B. C. D.

This is an example of Hide NAT. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.

Correct Answer: D

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Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 37 In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used: A. B. C. D.

It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway's routing table. The Security Gateway's ARP file must be modified. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 38 Secure Internal Communications (SIC) is completely NAT-tolerant because it is based on:

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A. B. C. D.

IP addresses. SIC is not NAT-tolerant. SIC names. MAC addresses.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 39 Static NAT connections, by default, translate on which firewall kernel inspection point? A. B. C. D.

Inbound Outbound Post-inbound Eitherbound

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 You are MegaCorp's Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some of them use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the rule order if both methods are used together? Give the BEST answer. A. B. C. D.

The Administrator decides the rule order by shifting the corresponding rules up and down. The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range. The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range. The rule position depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41 Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when: 1) NAT decision is based on the destination port. http://www.gratisexam.com/

2) Both Source and Destination IP's have to be translated. 3) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway. 4) NAT should be performed on the server side. A. B. C. D.

1 and 2 2 and 4 1, 3, and 4 2 and 3

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 42 After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is the likely source of the issue? A. B. C. D.

The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted. An IPSO ACL has blocked the packet's outbound passage. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet. It is due to NAT.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 43 Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R77 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet? A. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway. B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway. C. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.

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D. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway. Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44 You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R77 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner's access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following: 1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server. 2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen: - Allow bi-directional NAT - Translate destination on client side Do the above settings limit the partner's access? A. B. C. D.

Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet. No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance. Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules. No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45 You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the default settings in Global Properties / NAT.) When you run fw monitor on the R77 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host 10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in the monitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5? A. o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machine B. I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machine

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C. O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machine D. i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 You have configured Automatic Static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box Translate destination on client site from Global Properties > NAT. Assuming all other NAT settings in Global Properties are selected, what else must be configured so that a host on the Internet can initiate an inbound connection to this host? A. B. C. D.

No extra configuration is needed. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway's external interface. The NAT IP address must be added to the external Gateway interface anti-spoofing group. A static route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway's internal interface.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet. You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows: SourcE. Any || Destination: web_public_IP || ServicE. Any || Translated SourcE. original || Translated Destination: web_private_IP || ServicE. Original "web_public_IP ? is the node object that represents the new Web server's public IP address. "web_private_IP ? is the node object that represents the new Web site's private IP address. You enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT. When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet you see the error "page cannot be displayed ?. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason? A. B. C. D.

There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server. There is no ARP table entry for the protected Web server's public IP address. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the Web server's private IP address. There is no NAT rule translating the source IP address of packets coming from the protected Web server.

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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 48 You are responsible for the configuration of MegaCorp's Check Point Firewall. You need to allow two NAT rules to match a connection. Is it possible? Give the BEST answer. A. No, it is not possible to have more than one NAT rule matching a connection. When the firewall receives a packet belonging to a connection, it compares it against the first rule in the Rule Base, then the second rule, and so on. When it finds a rule that matches, it stops checking and applies that rule. B. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only in using Manual NAT (bidirectional NAT). C. Yes, there are always as many active NAT rules as there are connections. D. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only when using Automatic NAT (bidirectional NAT). Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 You have created a Rule Base for firewall, websydney. Now you are going to create a new policy package with security and address translation rules for a second Gateway. What is TRUE about the new package's NAT rules? Exhibit:

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A. B. C. D.

Rules 1, 2, 3 will appear in the new package. Only rule 1 will appear in the new package. NAT rules will be empty in the new package. Rules 4 and 5 will appear in the new package.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 What is the default setting when you use NAT? A. B. C. D.

Destination Translated on Server side Destination Translated on Client side Source Translated on both sides Source Translated on Client side

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 51 Select the TRUE statements about the Rule Base shown? Exhibit:

1) HTTP traffic from webrome to websingapore will be encrypted. 2) HTTP traffic from websingapore to webrome will be encrypted. 3) HTTP traffic from webrome to websingapore will be authenticated. 4) HTTP traffic from websingapore to webrome will be blocked. A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 3 only C. 2 and 3

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D. 3 and 4 Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 52 Which rule is responsible for the client authentication failure? Exhibit:

A. B. C. D.

Rule 4 Rule 6 Rule 3 Rule 5

Correct Answer: A

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Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 53 You receive a notification that long-lasting Telnet connections to a mainframe are dropped after an hour of inactivity. Reviewing SmartView Tracker shows the packet is dropped with the error: Unknown established connection How do you resolve this problem without causing other security issues? Choose the BEST answer. A. B. C. D.

Increase the service-based session timeout of the default Telnet service to 24-hours. Ask the mainframe users to reconnect every time this error occurs. Increase the TCP session timeout under Global Properties > Stateful Inspection. Create a new TCP service object on port 23 called Telnet-mainframe. Define a service-based session timeout of 24-hours. Use this new object only in the rule that allows the Telnet connections to the mainframe.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 54 Which SmartConsole tool would you use to see the last policy pushed in the audit log? A. B. C. D.

SmartView Tracker None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server. SmartView Status SmartView Server

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 55 SmartView Tracker logs the following Security Administrator activities, EXCEPT: A. B. C. D.

Object creation, deletion, and editing Tracking SLA compliance Administrator login and logout Rule Base changes

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56 What happens when you select File > Export from the SmartView Tracker menu? A. B. C. D.

Current logs are exported to a new *.log file. Exported log entries are not viewable in SmartView Tracker. Logs in fw.log are exported to a file that can be opened by Microsoft Excel. Exported log entries are deleted from fw.log.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 57 By default, when you click File > Switch Active File in SmartView Tracker, the Security Management Server: A. B. C. D.

Saves the current log file, names the log file by date and time, and starts a new log file. Purges the current log file, and starts a new log file. Prompts you to enter a filename, and then saves the log file. Purges the current log file, and prompts you for the new log's mode.

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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 58 You are working with three other Security Administrators. Which SmartConsole component can be used to monitor changes to rules or object properties made by the other administrators? A. B. C. D.

Eventia Tracker SmartView Monitor Eventia Monitor SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 59 Which SmartView Tracker mode allows you to read the SMTP e-mail body sent from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company?

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A. B. C. D.

This is not a SmartView Tracker feature. Display Capture Action Network and Endpoint Tab Display Payload View

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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 60 You can include External commands in SmartView Tracker by the menu Tools > Custom Commands. The Security Management Server is running under GAiA, and the GUI is on a system running Microsoft Windows. How do you run the command traceroute on an IP address? A. B. C. D.

There is no possibility to expand the three pre-defined options Ping, Whois, and Nslookup. Go to the menu Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Windows command tracert.exe to the list. Use the program GUIdbedit to add the command traceroute to the Security Management Server properties. Go to the menu, Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Linux command traceroute to the list.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 61 Where is the easiest and BEST place to find information about connections between two machines? A. B. C. D.

All options are valid. On a Security Gateway using the command fw log. On a Security Management Server, using SmartView Tracker. On a Security Gateway Console interface; it gives you detailed access to log files and state table information.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 62 Which of the following can be found in cpinfo from an enforcement point? A. B. C. D.

Everything NOT contained in the file r2info VPN keys for all established connections to all enforcement points The complete file objects_5_0.c Policy file information specific to this enforcement point

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 63 Which R77 SmartConsole tool would you use to verify the installed Security Policy name on a Security Gateway? A. B. C. D.

SmartView Tracker None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server. SmartView Server SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64 You have detected a possible intruder listed in SmartView Tracker's active pane. What is the fastest method to block this intruder from accessing your network indefinitely? A. B. C. D.

Modify the Rule Base to drop these connections from the network. In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Block Intruder. In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Suspicious Activity Rules. In SmartDashboard, select IPS > Network Security > Denial of Service.

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Correct Answer: B Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 65 Where can an administrator specify the notification action to be taken by the firewall in the event that available disk space drops below 15%? A. B. C. D.

SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > Threshold Settings SmartView Tracker > Audit Tab > Gateway Counters SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > System Information > Thresholds This can only be monitored by a user-defined script.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 66 Where can an administrator configure the notification action in the event of a policy install time change? A. B. C. D.

SmartView Monitor > Gateways > Thresholds Settings SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > System Information > Thresholds SmartDashboard > Policy Package Manager SmartDashboard > Security Gateway Object > Advanced Properties Tab

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 67 Where are custom queries stored in R77 SmartView Tracker?

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A. B. C. D.

On the SmartView Tracker PC local file system under the user's profile. On the Security Management Server tied to the GUI client IP. On the Security Management Server tied to the Administrator User Database login name. On the SmartView Tracker PC local file system shared by all users of that local PC.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 68 How do you view a Security Administrator's activities with SmartConsole? A. B. C. D.

Eventia Suite SmartView Monitor using the Administrator Activity filter SmartView Tracker in the Management tab SmartView Tracker in the Network and Endpoint tabs

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 69 Which SmartView Tracker selection would most effectively show who installed a Security Policy blocking all traffic from the corporate network? A. B. C. D.

Management tab Custom filter Network and Endpoint tab Active tab

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume A

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 70 You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log. How do you view Security Administrator activity? A. B. C. D.

SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs on the Security Management Server's Operating System. SmartView Tracker in Network and Endpoint Mode SmartView Tracker in Active Mode SmartView Tracker in Management Mode

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 71 Which of the following R77 SmartView Tracker views will display a popup warning about performance implications on the Security Gateway? A. B. C. D.

All Records Query Account Query Active Tab Audit Tab

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 72 While in SmartView Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be an intrusion. He decides to block the traffic for 60 minutes, but cannot remember all the steps. What is the correct order of steps needed to set up the block? 1) Select Active Mode tab in SmartView Tracker. http://www.gratisexam.com/

2) Select Tools > Block Intruder. 3) Select Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker. 4) Set Blocking Timeout value to 60 minutes. 5) Highlight connection that should be blocked. A. B. C. D.

1, 2, 5, 4 3, 2, 5, 4 1, 5, 2, 4 3, 5, 2, 4

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume A Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 73 How can you activate the SNMP daemon on a Check Point Security Management Server? A. B. C. D.

Using the command line, enter snmp_install. From cpconfig, select SNMP extension. Any of these options will work. In SmartDashboard, right-click a Check Point object and select Activate SNMP.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74 Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R77 Security Gateway? A. B. C. D.

Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.

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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 75 When you use the Global Properties' default settings on R77, which type of traffic will be dropped if NO explicit rule allows the traffic? A. B. C. D.

SmartUpdate connections Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information RIP traffic

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 76 You have installed a R77 Security Gateway on GAiA. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway object and Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is the problem? A. B. C. D.

The object was created with Node > Gateway. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On. The new Gateway's temporary license has expired.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 77 Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order? A. B. C. D.

Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rules Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule Base Grouping rules by date of creation

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 78 Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order? A. B. C. D.

Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules Placing more restrictive rules before more permissive rules Grouping authentication rules with QOS rules Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 79 You would use the Hide Rule feature to: A. B. C. D.

View only a few rules without the distraction of others. Hide rules from read-only administrators. Hide rules from a SYN/ACK attack. Make rules invisible to incoming packets.

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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 80 You are a Security Administrator using one Security Management Server managing three different firewalls. One firewall does NOT show up in the dialog box when attempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is a possible cause? A. B. C. D.

The firewall has failed to sync with the Security Management Server for 60 minutes. The firewall object has been created but SIC has not yet been established. The firewall is not listed in the Policy Installation Targets screen for this policy package. The license for this specific firewall has expired.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 81 Your shipping company uses a custom application to update the shipping distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateway's Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Since you are responsible for multiple sites, you want notification by a text message to your cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following would work BEST for your purpose? A. B. C. D.

Logging implied rules User-defined alert script SNMP trap SmartView Monitor Threshold

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 82 A client has created a new Gateway object that will be managed at a remote location. When the client attempts to install the Security Policy to the new Gateway object, the object does not appear in the Install On check box. What should you look for? A. B. C. D.

Secure Internal Communications (SIC) not configured for the object. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway option from the Network Objects dialog box. Anti-spoofing not configured on the interfaces on the Gateway object. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Security Gateway option in the network objects, dialog box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the Security Gateway object.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 83 A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard connections to the stand-alone installation of R77. After running the command fw unloadlocal, you are able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes. Which of the following change is the most likely cause of the block? A. B. C. D.

The Allow Control Connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked. A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R77 Gateway. The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it. The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN Gateway.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 84 When configuring anti-spoofing on the Security Gateway object interfaces, which of the following is NOT a valid R77 topology configuration?

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A. B. C. D.

External Any Specific Not Defined

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 85 You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

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A. B. C. D.

The POP3 rule is disabled. POP3 is accepted in Global Properties. The POP3 rule is hidden. POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R77.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86 Which rule is responsible for the installation failure? Exhibit:

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A. B. C. D.

Rule 3 Rule 4 Rule 6 Rule 5

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 87 http://www.gratisexam.com/

Reviewing the Rule Base, you see that ________ is responsible for the client authentication failure. Exhibit:

Exhibit: A. B. C. D.

Rule 4 Rule 7 Rule 8 Rule 5

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 88 http://www.gratisexam.com/

Which rule is responsible for the installation failure? Exhibit:

A. B. C. D.

Rule 5 Rule 4 Rule 3 Rule 6

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 89 As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorization time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this?

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Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting: A. B. C. D.

in the user object's Authentication screen. in the Gateway object's Authentication screen. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 90 The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember? A. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services. B. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server. C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out. D. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab. Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 91 Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management in SmartDashboard, using an LDAP server. A. B. C. D.

Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and create an LDAP resource object. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties. Enable User Directory in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP server, and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.

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Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 92 You cannot use SmartDashboard's User Directory features to connect to the LDAP server. What should you investigate? 1) Verify you have read-only permissions as administrator for the operating system. 2) Verify there are no restrictions blocking SmartDashboard's User Manager from connecting to the LDAP server. 3) Check that the login Distinguished Name configured has root permission (or at least write permission Administrative access) in the LDAP Server's access control configuration. A. B. C. D.

1, 2, and 3 2 and 3 1 and 2 1 and 3

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 93 Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens by default. A. B. C. D.

259, 900 256, 600 80, 256 8080, 529

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94 What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port? A. B. C. D.

23 264 900 259

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 95 Your company's Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can use any services. The Gateway does not allow the Telnet service to itself from any location. How would you configure authentication on the Gateway? With a: A. B. C. D.

Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900 Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign on Client Authentication for fully automatic sign on Session Authentication rule

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 96 Which authentication type permits five different sign-on methods in the authentication properties window? A. Client Authentication B. Manual Authentication

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C. User Authentication D. Session Authentication Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 97 Which Client Authentication sign-on method requires the user to first authenticate via the User Authentication mechanism, when logging in to a remote server with Telnet? A. B. C. D.

Manual Sign On Agent Automatic Sign On Partially Automatic Sign On Standard Sign On

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 98 Which Security Gateway R77 configuration setting forces the Client Authentication authorization time-out to refresh, each time a new user is authenticated? The: A. B. C. D.

Time properties, adjusted on the user objects for each user, in the Client Authentication rule Source. IPS > Application Intelligence > Client Authentication > Refresh User Timeout option enabled. Refreshable Timeout setting, in Client Authentication Action Properties > Limits. Global Properties > Authentication parameters, adjusted to allow for Regular Client Refreshment.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 99 All R77 Security Servers can perform authentication with the exception of one. Which of the Security Servers can NOT perform authentication? A. B. C. D.

FTP SMTP HTTP RLOGIN

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 100 Which of the following are authentication methods that Security Gateway R77 uses to validate connection attempts? Select the response below that includes the MOST complete list of valid authentication methods. A. B. C. D.

Proxied, User, Dynamic, Session Connection, User, Client User, Client, Session User, Proxied, Session

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 101 Security Gateway R77 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the response below that contains the MOST correct list of supported services. A. SMTP, FTP, TELNET B. SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET

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C. FTP, HTTP, TELNET D. FTP, TELNET Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 102 With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R77 user definitions on a(n) _________ Server. A. B. C. D.

LDAP Radius SecureID NT Domain

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 103 The User Directory Software Blade is used to integrate which of the following with Security Gateway R77? A. B. C. D.

RADIUS server Account Management Client server UserAuthority server LDAP server

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 104 If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check? A. B. C. D.

Connectivity between the R77 Gateway and LDAP server Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Overlapping VPN Domains Domain name resolution

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 105 Which type of R77 Security Server does not provide User Authentication? A. B. C. D.

SMTP Security Server HTTP Security Server FTP Security Server HTTPS Security Server

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 106 You are about to integrate RSA SecurID users into the Check Point infrastructure. What kind of users are to be defined via SmartDashboard? A. B. C. D.

A group with generic user All users LDAP Account Unit Group Internal user Group

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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 107 For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication? A. B. C. D.

Telnet SSH FTP HTTPS

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 108 Charles requests a Website while using a computer not in the net_singapore network. What is TRUE about his location restriction? Exhibit:

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A. B. C. D.

Source setting in Source column always takes precedence. Source setting in User Properties always takes precedence. As location restrictions add up, he would be allowed from net_singapore and net_sydney. It depends on how the User Auth object is configured; whether User Properties or Source Restriction takes precedence.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 109 In the Rule Base displayed, user authentication in Rule 4 is configured as fully automatic. Eric is a member of the LDAP group, MSD_Group.

What happens when Eric tries to connect to a server on the Internet?

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A. B. C. D.

None of these things will happen. Eric will be authenticated and get access to the requested server. Eric will be blocked because LDAP is not allowed in the Rule Base. Eric will be dropped by the Stealth Rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 110 Which of the following is an authentication method used by Identity Awareness? A. B. C. D.

SSL Captive Portal RSA PKI

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 111 What is the purpose of an Identity Agent? A. B. C. D.

Provide user and machine identity to a gateway Manual entry of user credentials for LDAP authentication Audit a user's access, and send that data to a log server Disable Single Sign On

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 112 What type of traffic can be re-directed to the Captive Portal?

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A. B. C. D.

SMTP HTTP All of the above FTP

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 113 The Captive Portal tool: A. B. C. D.

Acquires identities from unidentified users. Is only used for guest user authentication. Allows access to users already identified. Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 114 Captive Portal is a __________ that allows the gateway to request login information from the user. A. B. C. D.

Pre-configured and customizable web-based tool Transparent network inspection tool LDAP server add-on Separately licensed feature

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 115 Complete this statement from the options provided. Using Captive Portal, unidentified users may be either; blocked, allowed to enter required credentials, or required to download the _____________. A. B. C. D.

Identity Awareness Agent Full Endpoint Client ICA Certificate SecureClient

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 116 Users with Identity Awareness Agent installed on their machines login with __________, so that when the user logs into the domain, that information is also used to meet Identity Awareness credential requests. A. Key-logging

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B. ICA Certificates C. SecureClient D. Single Sign-On Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 117 Which of the following methods is NOT used by Identity Awareness to catalog identities? A. B. C. D.

AD Query Captive Portal Identity Agent GPO

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 118 When using AD Query to authenticate users for Identity Awareness, identity data is received seamlessly from the Microsoft Active Directory (AD). What is NOT a recommended usage of this method? A. B. C. D.

Leveraging identity in the application control blade Basic identity enforcement in the internal network Identity-based auditing and logging Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 119 The Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign- On (SSO). What is not a recommended usage of this method? A. B. C. D.

When accuracy in detecting identity is crucial Leveraging identity for Data Center protection Protecting highly sensitive servers Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 120 Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal? A. B. C. D.

From the Internet Through internal interfaces Through all interfaces According to the Firewall Policy

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 121 If you were NOT using IKE aggressive mode for your IPsec tunnel, how many packets would you see for normal Phase 1 exchange? A. 9 B. 2 C. 3

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D. 6 Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 122 How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode? A. B. C. D.

12 1 3 6

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123 How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Aggressive Mode? A. B. C. D.

12 6 3 1

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 124 Which of the following actions take place in IKE Phase 2 with Perfect Forward Secrecy disabled? A. B. C. D.

Symmetric IPsec keys are generated. Each Security Gateway generates a private Diffie-Hellman (DH) key from random pools. The DH public keys are exchanged. Peers authenticate using certificates or preshared secrets.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 125 Which of the following commands can be used to remove site-to-site IPsec Security Association (SA)? A. B. C. D.

vpn debug ipsec vpn ipsec fw ipsec tu vpn tu

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 126 How many packets are required for IKE Phase 2? A. B. C. D.

12 2 6 3

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Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 127 Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1? A. B. C. D.

Peers agree on encryption method. Diffie-Hellman key is combined with the key material to produce the symmetrical IPsec key. Peers agree on integrity method. Each side generates a session key from its private key and the peer's public key.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 128 When using vpn tu, which option must you choose if you only want to clear phase 2 for a specific IP (gateway)? Exhibit:

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A. B. C. D.

(5) Delete all IPsec SAs for a given peer (GW) (7) Delete all IPsec+IKE SAs for a given peer (GW) (6) Delete all IPsec SAs for a given User (Client) (8) Delete all IPsec+IKE SAs for a given User (Client)

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 129 When using vpn tu, which option must you choose if you want to rebuild your VPN for a specific IP (gateway)? Exhibit:

A. B. C. D.

(6) Delete all IPsec SAs for a given User (Client) (5) Delete all IPsec SAs for a given peer (GW) (8) Delete all IPsec+IKE SAs for a given User (Client) Delete all IPsec+IKE SAs for a given peer (GW)

Correct Answer: D

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Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 130 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base? A. B. C. D.

WebUI SmartView Tracker SmartView Monitor SmartReporter

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 131 UDP packets are delivered if they are ___________. A. B. C. D.

a stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP a valid response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP bypassing the kernel by the forwarding layer of ClusterXL referenced in the SAM related dynamic tables

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 132 The INSPECT engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two OSI model layers?

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A. B. C. D.

Session and Transport Physical and Data Presentation and Application Datalink and Network

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 133 Your company has two headquarters, one in London, and one in New York. Each office includes several branch offices. The branch offices need to communicate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and only the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for establishing VPN Communities for this company? VPN Communities comprised of: A. One star Community with the option to mesh the center of the star: New York and London Gateways added to the center of the star with the mesh center Gateways option checked; all London branch offices defined in one satellite window, but, all New York branch offices defined in another satellite window. B. Two mesh and one star Community: One mesh Community is set up for each of the headquarters and its branch offices. The star Community is configured with London as the center of the Community and New York is the satellite. C. Two star and one mesh Community: One star Community is set up for each site, with headquarters as the Community center, and its branches as satellites. The mesh Community includes only New York and London Gateways. D. Three mesh Communities: One for London headquarters and its branches, one for New York headquarters and its branches, and one for London and New York headquarters. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 134 Your company has two headquarters, one in London, one in New York. Each of the headquarters includes several branch offices. The branch offices only need to communicate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for establishing VPN Communities among the branch offices and their headquarters, and between the two headquarters? VPN Communities comprised of: A. Three mesh Communities: one for London headquarters and its branches; one for New York headquarters and its branches; and one for London and New York

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headquarters. B. Two mesh and one star Community: Each mesh Community is set up for each site between headquarters their branches. The star Community has New York as the center and London as its satellite. C. Two star communities and one mesh: A star community for each city with headquarters as center, and branches as satellites. Then one mesh community for the two headquarters. D. One star Community with the option to mesh the center of the star: New York and London Gateways added to the center of the star with the "mesh center Gateways ? option checked; all London branch offices defined in one satellite window; but, all New York branch offices defined in another satellite window. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 135 Match the terms with their definitions: Exhibit:

A. B. C. D.

A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 136 Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN? A. B. C. D.

Scalability to accommodate user groups Centralized management Strong authentication Strong data encryption

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 137 Which of the following is NOT true for Clientless VPN? A. B. C. D.

The Gateway can enforce the use of strong encryption. The Gateway accepts any encryption method that is proposed by the client and supported in the VPN. Secure communication is provided between clients and servers that support HTTP. User Authentication is supported.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 138 You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities should you do first?

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A. B. C. D.

Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner's CA. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner's Certificate Authority (CA). Manually import your partner's Certificate Revocation List. Manually import your partner's Access Control List.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 139 Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies. Your manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features. This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly. How would you start such a migration? A. B. C. D.

This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified mode Gateway does not work. This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage. You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all Gateways at the same time. Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then migrate Gateway per Gateway.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140

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Your manager requires you to setup a VPN to a new business partner site. The administrator from the partner site gives you his VPN settings and you notice that he setup AES 128 for IKE phase 1 and AES 256 for IKE phase 2. Why is this a problematic setup? A. The two algorithms do not have the same key length and so don't work together. You will get the error .... No proposal chosen.... B. All is fine as the longest key length has been chosen for encrypting the data and a shorter key length for higher performance for setting up the tunnel. C. Only 128 bit keys are used for phase 1 keys which are protecting phase 2, so the longer key length in phase 2 only costs performance and does not add security due to a shorter key in phase 1. D. All is fine and can be used as is. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 141 Why are certificates preferred over pre-shared keys in an IPsec VPN? A. B. C. D.

Weak performancE. PSK takes more time to encrypt than Diffie-Hellman. Weak Security: PSK are static and can be brute-forced. Weak security: PSKs can only have 112 bit length. Weak scalability: PSKs need to be set on each and every Gateway.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 142 What is a possible reason for the IKE failure shown in this screenshot?

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A. B. C. D.

Mismatch in VPN Domains. Mismatch in preshared secrets. Mismatch in Diffie-Hellman group. Mismatch in encryption schemes.

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Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 143 When using an encryption algorithm, which is generally considered the best encryption method? A. B. C. D.

Triple DES AES-256 CAST cipher DES

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 144 Which do you configure to give remote access VPN users a local IP address? A. B. C. D.

Encryption domain pool NAT pool Office mode IP pool Authentication pool

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145

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You have a mesh VPN Community configured to create a site-to-site VPN. Given the displayed VPN properties, what can you conclude about this community? Exhibit:

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A. The VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption using the longest key Security Gateway R77 supports. B. Changing the setting Perform key exchange encryption with from AES-256 to 3DES will enhance the VPN Community's security , and reduce encryption overhead. C. Change the data-integrity setting for this VPN Community because MD5 is incompatible with AES. D. Changing the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with from AES-128 to 3Des will increase the encryption overhead. Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 146 Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from _____________. A. B. C. D.

sysconfig The ICA management tool SmartUpdate SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 147 Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard? A. B. C. D.

Run cpconfig, and click Reset. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 148 Exhibit:

You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it? A. B. C. D.

2, 3, 4, 1, 5 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149 Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation key on the Gateway's side with the command cpconfig and put in the same activation key in the Gateway's object on the Security Management Server. Unfortunately, SIC can not be established. What is a possible reason for the problem?

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A. B. C. D.

The installed policy blocks the communication. The old Gateway object should have been deleted and recreated. Joe forgot to exit from cpconfig. Joe forgot to reboot the Gateway.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150 You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.

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In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the cpconfig menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working connection, you receive this error message:

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What is the reason for this behavior? A. B. C. D.

The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic Setup > Initialize). The Check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 151 John is the Security Administrator in his company. He installs a new R77 Security Management Server and a new R77 Gateway. He now wants to establish SIC between them. After entering the activation key, he gets the following message in SmartDashboard "Trust established ? SIC still does not seem to work because the policy won't install and interface fetching does not work. What might be a reason for this? A. B. C. D.

SIC does not function over the network. It always works when the trust is established The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid. This must be a human error.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 152 The SIC certificate is stored in the directory _______________.

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A. B. C. D.

$CPDIR/registry $CPDIR/conf $FWDIR/database $FWDIR/conf

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 153 You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway. After the SIC reset operation is complete, the policy that will be installed is the: A. B. C. D.

Standard policy. Initial policy. Last policy that was installed. Default filter.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 154 Exhibit:

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Chris has lost SIC communication with his Security Gateway and he needs to re-establish SIC. What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task? A. B. C. D.

5, 1, 2, 4 5, 1, 4, 2 3, 1, 4, 2 2, 3, 1, 4

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 155 What happens when you open the Gateway object window Trusted Communication and press and confirm Reset? Exhibit:

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A. B. C. D.

Sic will be reset on the Gateway only. The Gateway certificate will be revoked on the Gateway only. The Gateway certificate will be revoked on the Security Managment Server only. The Gateway certificate will be revoked on the Security Management Server and SIC will be reset on the Gateway.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 156 Identity Awareness is implemented to manage access to protected resources based on a user's _____________. A. B. C. D.

Application requirement Computer MAC address Identity Time of connection

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 157 Which of the following allows administrators to allow or deny traffic to or from a specific network based on the user's credentials? A. B. C. D.

Access Policy Access Role Access Rule Access Certificate

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 158 John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to a set of designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19. He has received a new laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator: http://www.gratisexam.com/

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources, and installs the policy. 2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location and installs policy. John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and was not able to connect to the HR Web server. What is the next BEST troubleshooting step? A. B. C. D.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue Install the Identity Awareness Agent Set static IP to DHCP After enabling Identity Awareness, reboot the gateway

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 159 John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned an IP address 10.0.0.19 via DHCP. John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop. He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator: 1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy. 2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location. John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to connect. How does he solve this problem? A. B. C. D.

John should install the Identity Awareness Agent The firewall admin should install the Security Policy John should lock and unlock the computer Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 160 John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19. John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator: 1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy. 2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location. What should John do when he cannot access the web server from a different personal computer? A. B. C. D.

John should lock and unlock his computer Investigate this as a network connectivity issue The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 161 Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because the iPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the Captive Portal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R77 Firewall Rule Base. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must: 1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources. 2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected. 3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select accept as the Action. Ms. McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable. What should she do? A. B. C. D.

Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule "Redirect HTTP connections to an authentication (captive) portal? Have the security administrator reboot the firewall Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access Role Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPad

Correct Answer: A

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Section: Volume B Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 162 When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query: A. B. C. D.

Requires client and server side software. Prompts the user to enter credentials. Requires administrators to specifically allow LDAP traffic to and from the LDAP Server and the Security Gateway. Is transparent, requiring no client or server side software, or client intervention.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 163 Which of the following firewall modes DOES NOT allow for Identity Awareness to be deployed? A. B. C. D.

Bridge Load Sharing High Availability Fail Open

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 164 What happens if the identity of a user is known?

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A. B. C. D.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 165 What happens if the identity of a user is known? A. B. C. D.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped. If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based on the defined action.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 166 Which rule position in the Rule Base should hold the Cleanup Rule? Why? A. B. C. D.

First. It explicitly accepts otherwise dropped traffic. Last. It explicitly drops otherwise accepted traffic. Last. It serves a logging function before the implicit drop. Before last followed by the Stealth Rule.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167 Which item below in a Security Policy would be enforced first? A. B. C. D.

IP spoofing/IP options Security Policy First rule Administrator-defined Rule Base Network Address Translation

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 168 When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule? A. B. C. D.

Hidden rules are already effectively disabled from Security Gateway enforcement. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and select Disable Rule(s). Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and uncheck Hide, then right-click and select Disable Rule(s); re-hide the rule. Use the search utility in SmartDashboard to view all hidden rules. Select the relevant rule and click Disable Rule(s).

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 169 A Cleanup rule: A. logs connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default. B. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged by default.

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C. logs connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default. D. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default. Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 170 Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules? A. B. C. D.

You create them in SmartDashboard. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only. Changes to the Security Gateway's default settings do not affect implicit rules. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 171 You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect? A. B. C. D.

Last After Stealth Rule First Before Last

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 172 All of the following are Security Gateway control connections defined by default implied rules, EXCEPT: A. B. C. D.

Exclusion of specific services for reporting purposes. Acceptance of IKE and RDP traffic for communication and encryption purposes. Communication with server types, such as RADIUS, CVP, UFP, TACACS, and LDAP. Specific traffic that facilitates functionality, such as logging, management, and key exchange.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 173 In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy > Global Properties > Firewall tab. In order for the Security Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the Security Management Server on port ______. A. B. C. D.

259 900 256 257

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 174 A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used? A. Objects_5_0.C B. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate C. Rule Bases_5_0.fws

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D. fwauth.NDB Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 175 You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which one of the following would you choose to do? A. B. C. D.

Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 176 Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis? A. B. C. D.

User Authentication Client Authentication Session Authentication Cleanup

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 177 Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?

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A. B. C. D.

Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 178 Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources' servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured? A. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install. B. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install. C. In the SmartDashboard policy, select the correct firewall to be the Specific Target of the rule. D. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 179 A _______ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R77 Security Gateway. A. B. C. D.

IPS Cleanup Reject Stealth

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 180 In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties > FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate to the Security Gateway on port ______. A. B. C. D.

259 900 256 80

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 181 To check the Rule Base, some rules can be hidden so they do not distract the administrator from the unhidden rules. Assume that only rules accepting HTTP or SSH will be shown. How do you accomplish this? A. Ask your reseller to get a ticket for Check Point SmartUse and deliver him the Security Management Server cpinfo file.

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B. In SmartDashboard, right-click in the column field Service > Query Column. Then, put the services HTTP and SSH in the list. Do the same in the field Action and select Accept here. C. In SmartDashboard menu, select Search > Rule Base Queries. In the window that opens, create a new Query, give it a name (e.g. "HTTP_SSH ?) and define a clause regarding the two services HTTP and SSH. When having applied this, define a second clause for the action Accept and combine them with the Boolean operator AND. D. This cannot be configured since two selections (Service, Action) are not possible. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 182 What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install? A. B. C. D.

Keep all connections Keep data connections Re-match connections Reset all connections

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 183 What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule? A. B. C. D.

To prevent users from connecting directly to the gateway. To permit management traffic. To drop all traffic to the management server that is not explicitly permitted. To permit implied rules.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 184 As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4? Exhibit:

A. B. C. D.

Remove the service HTTP from the column Service in Rule 4. Modify the column VPN in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic. Nothing at all Modify the columns Source or Destination in Rule 4.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 185 You review this Security Policy because Rule 4 is inhibited. Which Rule is responsible? Exhibit:

A. B. C. D.

No rule inhibits Rule 4. Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 186 MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a central license for one remote Security Gateway. How do you apply the license? A. B. C. D.

Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate. Using your Security Management Server's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and applying the license locally with the command cplic put. Using each of the Gateways' IP addresses, and applying the licenses on the Security Management Server with the command cprlic put.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 187 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway. After selecting Packages > Distribute Only and choosing the target Gateway, the: A. B. C. D.

selected package is copied from the CD-ROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed. SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a distributed installation. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 188 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway. After selecting Packages > Distribute and Install Selected Package and choosing the target Gateway, the: A. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed. B. SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a distributed installation.

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C. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed. D. selected package is copied from the SmartUpdate PC CD-ROM directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed. Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 189 What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new packages with SmartUpdate? A. B. C. D.

A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC SmartUpdate GUI PC SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 190 What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate R77? A. B. C. D.

Fetch sync status Reboot Gateway Preinstall verifier Get all Gateway Data

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 191 What mechanism does a gateway configured with Identity Awareness and LDAP initially use to communicate with a Windows 2003 or 2008 server? A. B. C. D.

WMI CIFS RCP LDAP

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 192 Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate via LDAP? A. B. C. D.

Check Point Password Active Directory Server object Windows logon password WMI object

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 193 Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate using LDAP? A. B. C. D.

Login Distinguished Name and password Windows logon password Check Point Password WMI object

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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 194 Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate using LDAP? A. B. C. D.

Check Point Password WMI object Domain Admin username Windows logon password

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 195 Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard? A. B. C. D.

Gateway Object > General Properties Security Management Server > Identity Awareness Policy > Global Properties > Identity Awareness LDAP Server Object > General Properties

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 196 How do you configure the Security Policy to provide user access to the Captive Portal through an external (Internet) interface?

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A. B. C. D.

Change the gateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface. No action is necessary. This access is available by default. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access on all interfaces. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access for an external interface.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 197 To qualify as an Identity Awareness enabled rule, which column MAY include an Access Role? A. B. C. D.

Action Source User Track

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 198 To qualify as an Identity Awareness enabled rule, which column MAY include an Access Role? A. B. C. D.

Source Track User Action

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 199 What command with appropriate switches would you use to test Identity Awareness connectivity? A. B. C. D.

test_ldap test_ad_connectivity test_ldap_connectivity test_ad

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 200 What command syntax would you use to see accounts the gateway suspects are service accounts? A. B. C. D.

pdp check_log pdp show service adlog check_accounts adlog a service_accounts

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 201 What command syntax would you use to turn on PDP logging in a distributed environment? A. pdp track=1

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B. pdp tracker on C. pdp logging on D. pdp log=1 Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 202 Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard? A. B. C. D.

TACACS Captive Portal Check Point Password Windows password

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 203 Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard? A. B. C. D.

Check Point Password TACACS LDAP Windows password

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.gratisexam.com/

QUESTION 204 What gives administrators more flexibility when configuring Captive Portal instead of LDAP query for Identity Awareness authentication? A. B. C. D.

Captive Portal is more secure than standard LDAP Nothing, LDAP query is required when configuring Captive Portal Captive Portal works with both configured users and guests Captive Portal is more transparent to the user

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 205 How granular may an administrator filter an Access Role with identity awareness? Per:

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A. B. C. D.

Specific ICA Certificate AD User Radius Group Windows Domain

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 206 Can you use Captive Portal with HTTPS? A. B. C. D.

No, it only works with FTP No, it only works with FTP and HTTP Yes No, it only works with HTTP

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 207 Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object? A. B. C. D.

Source Network Source Machine Source User Source Server

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 208 In which Rule Base can you implement an Access Role? A. B. C. D.

DLP Mobile Access IPS Firewall

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Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 209 Access Role objects define users, machines, and network locations as: A. B. C. D.

Credentialed objects Linked objects One object Separate objects

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 210 Where do you verify that UserDirectory is enabled? A. B. C. D.

Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked Verify that Global Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked Verify that Global Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 211 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?

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A. B. C. D.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 212 You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three administrators for this particular server. How many can you create during installation? A. B. C. D.

One Only one with full access and one with read-only access As many as you want Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 213 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time verification? A. B. C. D.

When configuring the Gateway in the WebUI When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: B

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Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 214 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a Security Management Server and Security Gateway? A. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC). B. Use SmartUpdate to retype the Security Gateway activation key. This will automatically sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway. C. From the Security Management Server's command line, type fw putkey -p . D. Run the command fwm sic_reset to reinitialize the Security Management Server Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from SmartDashboard. Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 215 How can you recreate the Security Administrator account, which was created during initial Management Server installation on GAiA? A. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be prompted to create a new account. B. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password. C. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the same name. D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig administrator. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 216 The London Security Gateway Administrator has just installed the Security Gateway and Management Server. He has not changed any default settings. As he tries to configure the Gateway, he is unable to connect.

Which troubleshooting suggestion will NOT help him? A. B. C. D.

Check if some intermediate network device has a wrong routing table entry, VLAN assignment, duplex-mismatch, or trunk issue. Test the IP address assignment and routing settings of the Security Management Server, Gateway, and console client. Verify the SIC initialization. Verify that the Rule Base explicitly allows management connections.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 217 You need to completely reboot the Operating System after making which of the following changes on the Security Gateway? (i.e. the command cprestart is not sufficient.) 1. Adding a hot-swappable NIC to the Operating System for the first time. 2. Uninstalling the R77 Power/UTM package. 3. Installing the R77 Power/UTM package. 4. Re-establishing SIC to the Security Management Server. 5. Doubling the maximum number of connections accepted by the Security Gateway. A. B. C. D.

3 only 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 2, 3 only 3, 4, and 5 only

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 218 The Security Gateway is installed on GAiA R77 The default port for the Web User Interface is _______. A. B. C. D.

TCP 18211 TCP 443 TCP 4433 TCP 257

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 219 http://www.gratisexam.com/

Over the weekend, an Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new R77 Security Gateway using GAiA. You want to confirm communication between the Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Security Policy. What might prevent you from installing the Policy? A. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on both the Security Gateway and the Management Server. B. You first need to run the command fw unloadlocal on the new Security Gateway. C. You first need to initialize SIC in SmartUpdate. D. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on the Security Management Server. Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 220 An Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new IPSO-based R77 Security Gateway over the weekend. He e-mailed you the SIC activation key. You want to confirm communication between the Security Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Policy. What might prevent you from installing the Policy? A. An intermediate local Security Gateway does not allow a policy install through it to the remote new Security Gateway appliance. Resolve by running the command fw unloadlocal on the local Security Gateway. B. You first need to run the command fw unloadlocal on the R77 Security Gateway appliance in order to remove the restrictive default policy. C. You first need to create a new Gateway object in SmartDashboard, establish SIC via the Communication button, and define the Gateway's topology. D. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server. You must initialize SIC on the Security Management Server. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 221 How can you reset the Security Administrator password that was created during initial Security Management Server installation on GAiA?

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A. B. C. D.

Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and edit the cpconfig administrator. As expert user Type fwm -a, and provide the existing administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing administrator's account name. Reset the Security Administrator's password. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the Password portion of the file. Then log in to the account without a password. You will be prompted to assign a new password.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 222 You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user enters the authentication credentials. What must happen after authentication that allows the client to connect to the Security Gateway's VPN domain? A. B. C. D.

SNX modifies the routing table to forward VPN traffic to the Security Gateway. An office mode address must be obtained by the client. The SNX client application must be installed on the client. Active-X must be allowed on the client.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 223 The Tokyo Security Management Server Administrator cannot connect from his workstation in Osaka.

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Which of the following lists the BEST sequence of steps to troubleshoot this issue? A. Check for matching OS and product versions of the Security Management Server and the client. Then, ping the Gateways to verify connectivity. If successful, scan the log files for any denied management packets. B. Verify basic network connectivity to the local Gateway, service provider, remote Gateway, remote network and target machine. Then, test for firewall rules that deny management access to the target. If successful, verify that pcosaka is a valid client IP address. C. Check the allowed clients and users on the Security Management Server. If pcosaka and your user account are valid, check for network problems. If there are no network related issues, this is likely to be a problem with the server itself. Check for any patches and upgrades. If still unsuccessful, open a case with Technical Support. D. Call Tokyo to check if they can ping the Security Management Server locally. If so, login to sgtokyo, verify management connectivity and Rule Base. If this looks okay, ask your provider if they have some firewall rules that filters out your management traffic. Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 224 Where is the fingerprint generated, based on the output display? Exhibit:

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A. B. C. D.

SmartConsole SmartUpdate Security Management Server SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 225 Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed. Exhibit:

A. B. C. D.

C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5 C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4 C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5 C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 226 Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version? A. fw printver B. fw ver C. fw stat

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D. cpstat -gw Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 227 Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the Security Policy name and timestamp currently installed on a firewall module? A. B. C. D.

cpstat fwd fw ver fw stat fw ctl pstat

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 228 Suppose the Security Gateway hard drive fails and you are forced to rebuild it. You have a snapshot file stored to a TFTP server and backups of your Security Management Server. What is the correct procedure for rebuilding the Gateway quickly? A. Reinstall the base operating system (i.e., GAiA). Configure the Gateway interface so that the Gateway can communicate with the TFTP server. Revert to the stored snapshot image, and install the Security Policy. B. Run the command revert to restore the snapshot, establish SIC, and install the Policy. C. Run the command revert to restore the snapshot. Reinstall any necessary Check Point products. Establish SIC and install the Policy. D. Reinstall the base operating system (i.e., GAia). Configure the Gateway interface so that the Gateway can communicate with the TFTP server. Reinstall any necessary Check Point products and previously applied hotfixes. Revert to the stored snapshot image, and install the Policy. Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 229 Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export? A. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server. B. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newer Security Gateway version. C. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included or excluded before exporting. D. This command is no longer supported in GAiA. Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 230 What are you required to do before running the command upgrade_export? A. B. C. D.

Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway. Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server. Close all GUI clients. Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 231 A snapshot delivers a complete GAiA backup. The resulting file can be stored on servers or as a local file in /var/CPsnapshot/snapshots. How do you restore a local snapshot named MySnapshot.tgz? A. Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select the option Snapshot Management, provide the Expert password and select [L] for a restore from a local file.

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Then, provide the correct file name. B. As expert user, type the command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz. C. As expert user, type the command revert --file MySnapshot.tgz. D. As expert user, type the command snapshot - R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 232 What is the primary benefit of using the command upgrade_export over either backup or snapshot? A. B. C. D.

upgrade_export is operating system independent and can be used when backup or snapshot is not available. upgrade_export will back up routing tables, hosts files, and manual ARP configurations, where backup and snapshot will not. The commands backup and snapshot can take a long time to run whereas upgrade_export will take a much shorter amount of time. upgrade_export has an option to back up the system and SmartView Tracker logs while backup and snapshot will not.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 233 What is the syntax for uninstalling a package using newpkg? A. B. C. D.

-u -i -S newpkg CANNOT be used to uninstall a package

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 234 Your primary Security Gateway runs on GAiA. What is the easiest way to back up your Security Gateway R77 configuration, including routing and network configuration files? A. B. C. D.

Copying the directories $FWDIR/conf and $FWDIR/lib to another location. Using the native GAiA backup utility from command line or in the Web based user interface. Using the command upgrade_export. Run the pre_upgrade_verifier and save the .tgz file to the directory /temp.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 235 You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from your R77 GAiA Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do you use? A. B. C. D.

Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf GAiA back up utilities upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 236 You are running a R77 Security Gateway on GAiA. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What back up method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?

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A. B. C. D.

manual backup upgrade_export backup snapshot

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 237 Before upgrading SecurePlatform to GAiA, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration. An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problem after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing? A. B. C. D.

The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version). The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the boot menu of GAiA. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and copying netconf.C from the production environment. A backup cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 238 Which operating systems are supported by a Check Point Security Gateway on an open server? Select MOST complete list. A. B. C. D.

Sun Solaris, Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Check Point SecurePlatform, IPSO, Microsoft Windows Check Point GAiA and SecurePlatform, and Microsoft Windows Check Point GAiA, Microsoft Windows, Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Sun Solaris, IPSO Check Point GAiA and SecurePlatform, IPSO, Sun Solaris, Microsoft Windows

Correct Answer: B http://www.gratisexam.com/

Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 239 You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R71 to R77. Prior to upgrading, you want to back up the Gateway should there be any problems with the upgrade. Which of the following allows for the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time? A. B. C. D.

database revision snapshot upgrade_export backup

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 240 An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is: A. B. C. D.

A license can be taken from one Security Management Server and given to another Security Management Server. Only one IP address is used for all licenses. The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of a Security Gateway. Each module's license has a unique IP address. Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 241 You are running the license_upgrade tool on your GAiA Gateway. Which of the following can you NOT do with the upgrade tool?

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A. B. C. D.

Perform the actual license-upgrade process Simulate the license-upgrade process View the licenses in the SmartUpdate License Repository View the status of currently installed licenses

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 242 If a SmartUpdate upgrade or distribution operation fails on GAiA, how is the system recovered? A. B. C. D.

The Administrator can only revert to a previously created snapshot (if there is one) with the command cprinstall snapshot . The Administrator must reinstall the last version via the command cprinstall revert . The Administrator must remove the rpm packages manually, and re-attempt the upgrade. GAiA will reboot and automatically revert to the last snapshot version prior to upgrade.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 243 Why should the upgrade_export configuration file (.tgz) be deleted after you complete the import process? A. B. C. D.

SmartUpdate will start a new installation process if the machine is rebooted. It will prevent a future successful upgrade_export since the .tgz file cannot be overwritten. It contains your security configuration, which could be exploited. It will conflict with any future upgrades when using SmartUpdate.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 244 Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?

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A. B. C. D.

Security Management Server Check Point Gateway SmartConsole SmartUpdate upgrading/patching

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 245 If a Security Gateway enforces three protections, LDAP Injection, Malicious Code Protector, and Header Rejection, which Check Point license is required in SmartUpdate? A. B. C. D.

IPS SSL: VPN SmartEvent Intro Data Loss Prevention

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 246 Central license management allows a Security Administrator to perform which of the following functions? 1. Check for expired licenses. 2. Sort licenses and view license properties. 3. Attach both R77 Central and Local licesnes to a remote module. 4. Delete both R77 Local Licenses and Central licenses from a remote module. 5. Add or remove a license to or from the license repository. 6. Attach and/or delete only R77 Central licenses to a remote module (not Local licenses). A. B. C. D.

1, 2, 5, & 6 2, 3, 4, & 5 2, 5, & 6 1, 2, 3, 4, & 5

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 247 Which command gives an overview of your installed licenses? A. B. C. D.

cplicense showlic fw lic print cplic print

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.gratisexam.com/

QUESTION 248 Where are SmartEvent licenses installed? A. B. C. D.

SmartEvent server Log Server Security Management Server Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 249 ALL of the following options are provided by the GAiA sysconfig utility, EXCEPT: A. B. C. D.

Export setup DHCP Server configuration Time & Date GUI Clients

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 250 Which of the following options is available with the GAiA cpconfig utility on a Management Server? A. B. C. D.

Export setup DHCP Server configuration GUI Clients Time & Date http://www.gratisexam.com/

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 251 Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support? A. B. C. D.

fw cpinfo cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt diag cpstat - date.cpstat.txt

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 252 How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance? A. B. C. D.

clish -c show routing active enable cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward ipsofwd list

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 253

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Which command allows you to view the contents of an R77 table? A. B. C. D.

fw tab -a fw tab -t fw tab -s fw tab -x

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 254 Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R77 configuration report? A. B. C. D.

fw cpinfo infoCP cpinfo infoview

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 255 Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R77? A. B. C. D.

fw tab -u fw shutdown fw merge fwm policy_print

Correct Answer: A

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Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 256 You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in CLISH to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer. A. B. C. D.

ethtool set interface mii_tool ifconfig -a

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 257 Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO? A. B. C. D.

ipsofwd on admin echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward clish -c set routing active enable echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 258

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Which of the following objects is a valid source in an authentication rule? A. B. C. D.

Host@Any User@Network User_group@Network User@Any

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 259 You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why. A. B. C. D.

You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties. Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base. You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule. Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 260 Which authentication type requires specifying a contact agent in the Rule Base? A. B. C. D.

Client Authentication with Partially Automatic Sign On Client Authentication with Manual Sign On User Authentication Session Authentication

Correct Answer: D http://www.gratisexam.com/

Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 261 What is the difference between Standard and Specific Sign On methods? A. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate for each service specifically defined in the window Specific Action Properties. B. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows, but re-authenticate for each host to which he is trying to connect. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate for each service. C. Standard Sign On allows the user to be automatically authorized for all services that the rule allows. Specific Sign On requires that the user re-authenticate for each service and each host to which he is trying to connect. D. Standard Sign On requires the user to re-authenticate for each service and each host to which he is trying to connect. Specific Sign On allows the user to sign on only to a specific IP address. Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 262 Which set of objects have an Authentication tab? A. B. C. D.

Templates, Users Users, Networks Users, User Groups Networks, Hosts

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 263 How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a R77 Security Gateway? A. B. C. D.

By using the Clear User Cache button in SmartDashboard. Usernames and passwords only clear from memory after they time out. By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw fetchldap. By installing a Security Policy.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 264 Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 R2 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do you need in the Client Authentication rule in R77? A. B. C. D.

External-user group LDAP group A group with a generic user All Users

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 265 Assume you are a Security Administrator for ABCTech. You have allowed authenticated access to users from Mkting_net to Finance_net. But in the user's properties, connections are only permitted within Mkting_net. What is the BEST way to resolve this conflict? A. B. C. D.

Select Ignore Database in the Action Properties window. Permit access to Finance_net. Select Intersect with user database in the Action Properties window. Select Intersect with user database or Ignore Database in the Action Properties window. http://www.gratisexam.com/

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 266 For remote user authentication, which authentication scheme is NOT supported? A. B. C. D.

Check Point Password RADIUS TACACS SecurID

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 267 Review the rules.

Assume domain UDP is enabled in the impled rules. What happens when a user from the internal network tries to browse to the internet using HTTP? The user: A. can connect to the Internet successfully after being authenticated. B. is prompted three times before connecting to the Internet successfully.

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C. can go to the Internet after Telnetting to the client authentication daemon port 259. D. can go to the Internet, without being prompted for authentication. Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 268 Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen -

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After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command

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line. What happens to the user? A. B. C. D.

user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again. FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully. user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and password for Client Authentication. FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Manual Users must use either telnet to port 259 on the firewall, or use a Web browser to connect to port 900 on the firewall to authenticate before being granted access. # Partially Automatic If user authentication is configured for the service the user is attempting to access and they pass this authentication, then no further client authentication is required. For example, if HTTP is permitted on a client authentication rule, the user will be able to transparently authenticate since FireWall-1 has a security server for HTTP.Then, if this setting is chosen, users will not have to manually authenticate for this connection. Note that this applies to all services for which FireWall-1 has built-in security servers (HTTP, FTP, telnet, and rlogin). # Fully Automatic If the client has the session authentication agent installed, then no further client authentication is required (see session authentication below). For HTTP, FTP, telnet, or rlogin, the firewall will authenticate via user authentication, and then session authentication will be used to authenticate all other services. http://www.syngress.com Figure 6.19 Client Authentication Action Properties 278 Chapter 6 ยท Authenticating Users # Agent Automatic Sign On Uses session authentication agent to provide transparent authentication (see session authentication below). # Single Sign-On System Used in conjunction with UserAuthority servers to provide enhanced application level security. Discussion of UserAuthority is beyond the scope of this book. QUESTION 269 One of your remote Security Gateway's suddenly stops sending logs, and you cannot install the Security Policy on the Gateway. All other remote Security Gateways are logging normally to the Security Management Server, and Policy installation is not affected. When you click the Test SIC status button in the problematic Gateway object, you receive an error message. What is the problem? A. B. C. D.

The remote Gateway's IP address has changed, which invalidates the SIC Certificate. The time on the Security Management Server's clock has changed, which invalidates the remote Gateway's Certificate. The Internal Certificate Authority for the Security Management Server object has been removed from objects_5_0.C. There is no connection between the Security Management Server and the remote Gateway. Rules or routing may block the connection.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 270 What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log? A. B. C. D.

SIC revoke certificate event Destination IP address Most accessed Rule Base rule Number of concurrent IKE negotiations

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 271 What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log? A. B. C. D.

Historical reports log Policy rule modification date/time stamp Destination IP address Most accessed Rule Base rule

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 272 Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to operate correctly? A. 514

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B. 257 C. 256 D. 258 Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 273 You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp and would like to view network activity using SmartReporter. You select a standard predefined report. As you can see here, you can select the london Gateway.

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When you attempt to configure the Express Report, you are unable to select this Gateway.

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What is the reason for this behavior? Give the BEST answer. A. B. C. D.

You must enable the Eventia Express Mode on the london Gateway. You have the license for Eventia Reporter in Standard mode only. You must enable the Express Mode inside Eventia Reporter. You must enable Monitoring in the london Gateway object's General Properties.

Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 274

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In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing? A. B. C. D.

Rule 0 Blank field under Rule Number Rule 1 Cleanup Rule

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 275 A third-shift Security Administrator configured and installed a new Security Policy early this morning. When you arrive, he tells you that he has been receiving complaints that Internet access is very slow. You suspect the Security Gateway virtual memory might be the problem. Which SmartConsole component would you use to verify this? A. B. C. D.

Eventia Analyzer SmartView Tracker SmartView Monitor This information can only be viewed with the command fw ctl pstat from the CLI.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 276 You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host. You decide that you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the problematic host. You want to block this for an hour while you investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this? A. B. C. D.

Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file. Select Block intruder from the Tools menu in SmartView Tracker. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor. Add a temporary rule using SmartDashboard and select hide rule.

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Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 277 In SmartDashboard, you configure 45 MB as the required free hard-disk space to accommodate logs. What can you do to keep old log files, when free space falls below 45 MB? A. B. C. D.

Do nothing. Old logs are deleted, until free space is restored. Use the command fwm logexport to export the old log files to another location. Configure a script to run fw logswitch and SCP the output file to a separate file server. Do nothing. The Security Management Server automatically copies old logs to a backup server before purging.

Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 278 How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor? A. B. C. D.

An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor. By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.

Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 279 True or FalsE. SmartView Monitor can be used to create alerts on a specified Gateway. A. B. C. D.

True, by right-clicking on the Gateway and selecting Configure Thresholds. True, by choosing the Gateway and selecting System Information. False, an alert cannot be created for a specified Gateway. False, alerts can only be set in SmartDashboard Global Properties.

Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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