+12 ALL PUBLIC ONE MARKS QUESTION & ANSWERS QUESTIONS ( ) PREPARED BY

www.Padasalai.Net +12 ALL PUBLIC ONE MARKS QUESTION & ANSWERS QUESTIONS (2006 - 2013) PREPARED BY A.THANGAMANI, M.Sc., B.Ed., PG TEACHER IN CHEMISTR...
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ALL PUBLIC ONE MARKS QUESTION & ANSWERS QUESTIONS (2006 - 2013) PREPARED BY A.THANGAMANI, M.Sc., B.Ed., PG TEACHER IN CHEMISTRY JOTHI VIDHYALAYA MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ELAMPILLAI, SALEM-637502 MOBILE: +91-9994370800 Email: [email protected] 1|Page

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Public One Mark Questions (2006-2013) INORGANIC CHEMISTRY 1. ATOMIC STRUCTURE – II (2 one marks) 1. En= -313.6If the value of E1=34.84 to which value ‘n’ corresponds ______ n2 a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 2. Dual character of an electron was explained by ______. a) Bohr b) Heisenberg c) deBroglie d) Pauli 3. De-Broglie equation is ____ a) λ = mv/h b) λ = hmv c) λ = hv/m d) λ = h/mv 4. Which of the following particles having same kinetic energy would have the maximum de-Broglie in wavelength? a) Α-particle b) proton c) β-particle d) neutron 5. If the energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of H-atom is –E, what is the energy of the electron in the Bohr’s first orbit? a) 2 E b) –4 E c) -2 E d) 4 E 6. The bond order of oxygen molecule is ______. a) 2.5 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2 7. The hybridization SF6 molecule is _______. a) Sp3 b) Sp3d2 c) Sp3d d) Sp3d3 8. The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in __________. a) O-nitro phenol b) m-nitro phenol c) p-nitro phenol d) none 9. The hybridization of PCl5 molecule is _________. a) Sp3d2 b) Sp2 c) Sp3d d) Sp3 10. Molecular orbital with less energy is _____. a) σ 1s b) σ*1s c) л2py d) л*2py 11. Inter-molecular H-bonding is present in _____. a) HF b) H2O c) ethanol d) all of the above ᵒ 12. The momentum of particle which has debroglie wave length of 1A (h=6.62x10-34 kgm2s1 ) is ____. a) 6.6x10-23 kgms-1 b)6.6x10-24 kgms-1 c) 6.6x10-34 kgms-1 d) 6.6x1034 kgms-1 13. The nature of hybridization in IF7 molecule is ______. a) Sp3d b) Sp3d2 c) Sp3d3 d) Sp3 14. The bond order of Nitrogen molecule is ______. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. In a molecule 8 electrons are present in binding molecular orbital and 4 electrons are present in anti bonding molecular orbital. It’s bond order is _____. a) 3 b) 4 c) 2.5 d) 2 16. Energy levels of molecular orbitals have been experimentally determined by _____. a) Spectroscopic studies b) X-ray diffraction c) Crystallographic studies b) d) none of these 17. Which one of the following hybridization take place in methane, ammonium ion and carbon tetrachloride? a) sp3 b) sp2 c) sp d) sp3d 18. The number of nodal planes of 2S orbital is _____. a) 5 b)3 c) 1 d) 2 19. The hybridization involved in XeF6 is ____. a) sp3d b) sp3d2 c) sp3d3 d) sp3 2|Page

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www.Padasalai.Net 20. The hybridization involved in ICl4‾ is ____. b) sp3d2 b) sp3d c) sp3 d) sp3d3 21. Water exists in liquid state. This is due to a) High boiling point b) low boiling point c) Freezing point is zero d) hydrogen bond 22. Intermolecular Hydrogen bonding is present in _____ a) o-nitro phenol b) salicyclic acid c) HF d) o-hydroxy benzaldehyde 23. The hybridization in SO42-ion is ____. a) sp3 b) sp3d2 c) sp3d d) sp3d3 224. The hybridization in CO3 ion is ____. a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3d 25. The circumference of the circular orbit of an electron is an integral multiple of its _____. a) Frequency b) momentum c) mass d) wave length 26. Which one of the following experiments confirmed the wave nature of electron? a) G.P Thomson`s experiment c) Black body radiation b) Photo electric effect d) Millikan’s oil-drop experiment 2. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION – II (1 one mark) 1. On moving down the group, the radius of an ion ____. a) Decreases b) increases c) no change d) none of these 2. Effective nuclear chare(Z*) can be calculated by using the formula _____ a) Z*=Z-S b) Z*=Z+S c) Z*=S-Z d) Z=Z*-S 3. Among the following which has the maximum ionization energy? a) Alkali elements b) Alkaline elements c) Halogens d) Noble gases 4. The electron affinity of an atom______. a) Is directly proportional to its size b) is inversely proportional to its size b) Is independent of its size d) none of these 5. Among the following which has higher electron affinity value. a) Fluorine b) chlorine c) bromine d) iodine 6. The scale which is based on an empirical relation between the energy of a bond and electro negativities of bonded atoms is a) Pauling scale b) Mulliken’s scale c) sanderson’s scale d) Alfred and Rochow’s scale 7. The bond length of cl2 molecule is ____ a) 0.74 A˚ b) 1.44 A˚ c) 1.98 A˚ d) 2.28 A˚ 8. Noble gases have _____ electron affinity. a) High b) low c) zero d) very low 9. When XA>>XB then A-B bond is ____. a) Polar covalent b) non-polar covalent c) Ionic d) metallic 10. The metal having maximum electron affinity is ______. a) Na b) Ca c) Au d) Ag 3. p - BLOCK ELEMENTS (1 one mark) 1. Which of the following s most abundant in earth’s crust? a) C b) Si c) Ge d) Sn 2. An element which has burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A which on treatment with water gives an acid, B. Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow precipitate with AgNO3 solution A is ____. a) SO2 b) NO2 c) P2O3 d) SO3 3. The compound with garlic odour is ______. a) P2O3 b) P2O5 c) PH3 d)H3PO4 4. The shape of PCI5 is 3|Page

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a) Pyramidal b) trigonal bipyramidal c) linear d) tetrahedral 5. The compound used as smoke screen a)PCI3 b)PCI5 c)PH3 d)H3PO4 6. Which shows only -1 oxidation state? a) F b) Br c) Cl d) I 7. One can draw the map of building on a glass plate by ________. a) H I b) H F c) HBr d) HCl 8. Among the halogen acid, the weakest acid is _____. a) HF b) HCl c) HBr d) H I 9. The noble gases are unreactive because by a) Have same number of electrons c) are gases with low densities b) Have an atomicity of one d) have stable electronic configuration 10. The shape of XeF4 is a) Retrahedal b) octahedral c) square planar d) pyramidal 11. The lightest gas which non-inflammable a) He b) H2 c) N2 d)Ar 12. The compound that is used to arrest bleeding is a) K2SO4 b) Ferricalum c) Al2(SO4)3 d) Potash alum 13. The toxic element of Boron family is a) Boron b) indium c) thallium d) gallium 14. Which of the following does not belong to group 14? a) Ga b) Si c) C d) Pb 15. Which one of the following reacts with glass? a) HI b) HF c) HBr d) HCl 16. Inter gas used in beacon lights for safety air Navigation is a) Helium b) Argon c) Neon d) Xenon 17. An element which belongs to Group 14 is soft in nature does not react with pure water but dissolves in water containing dissolved air. Then the element is a) C b) Ge c) Pb d) T

1. 2. 3.

4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

9.

4. d - BLOCK ELEMENTS(2 one marks) The general electronic configuration of d-block elements is a) (n-1)d1-10ns1-2 b) (n-1)d1-5ns2 c) (n-1)d0ns-1 d) none of these The electronic configuration of chromium is a) 3d64s0 b) 3d54s1 c) 3d44s2 d) 3d34s24p1 Paramagnetism is the property of a) Paired electrons c) unpaired electrons b) Completely filled electronic subshells d) completely vacant electronic subshells Copper is extracted from a) Cuprite b) copper glance c) malachite d) copper pyrites Silversalt used in photograpy is a) AgCl b) AgNO3 c) AgF d) AgBr Which of the ions will give colourless aqueous solution? a) Ni2+ b) Fe2+ c) Cu2+ d) Cu+ Which of the following compounds is not coloured? a) Na2CuCl4 b) NaCdCl4 c) K4[Fe(Cn)6] d) K3[Fe(Cn)6] Choose the wrong statement regarding K2C2O7 a)It is powerful oxidizing agent c) It is soluble in water b) It is used in tanning industry d) It reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate.

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a) Cu(CN)2 b) K2[Cu(CN)6] c) K[Cu(CN)2] d) Cu2(CN)2+(CN)2 10. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons? a) Mn2+ b) Ti3+ c) V3+ d) Fe2+ 11. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is a) Cu2O+FeS b) FeSiO3 c) CuFeS2 d) Cu2S+FeO 12. The transition element with the lowest atomic number is a) Scandium b) Titanium c) Zinc d) Lanthanum 13. Which transition element shows highest oxidation state? a) Sc b)Ti c) Os d) Zn 14. Ferro chrome is an alloy of a) Cr, C, Fe, Ni b) Cr, `co, Ni, C c) Fe, Cr, d) Cr, Ni, Fe 15. The most malleable and ductile of all metal is a) Ag b) Zn c) Cu d) Au 16. The colour of Purple of cassius is a) Purple b) blue c) bluish green d) apple green 17. The metals present in Nichrome alloy a) Cr, Fe, Cu b) Cr, Co, Ni c) Cr, Fe d) Cr, Ni, Fe 18. The metal used in galvanizing iron sheets is a) Cr b) Cu c) Zn d) Ag 19. K2Cr2O7 reacts with KI and dil.H2SO4 and liberates a) l2 b) O2 c) H2 d) SO2 20. Which one of the following pairs have almost equal radii? a) MO, W b) Y,La c) Zr, Hf d) Nb, Ta 21. Bordeaux mixture contains a) AgNO3 + HNO3 b) Zn SO4 + H2SO4 c) CuSO4 + Ca(OH)2 d) KMnO4 + HCl 22. The number of unpaired electrons in Ti3+ is one. Then value of Magnetic Moment is (B.M) a) 1.414 b) 2 c) 1.732 d) 3 23. Which of the following ions will give colourless aqueous solution? a) Ni2+ b) Cu+ c) Cu2+ d) Fe2+ 24. A metal which precipitate gold from its Aurocyanide complex is a) Cr b) Ag c) Pt d) Zn 25. Which of the following will have maximum magnetic moment a) 3d2 b) 3d7 c) 3d6 d) 3d9 26. The compound used in making Ruby red glass and high class pottery is a) Colloidal Ag b) ruby silver c) purple of cassius d) ruby copper 27. Spitting of silver can be prevented by the layer of a) Borax b) charcoal c) sand d) silver bromide

1. 2.

3.

4. 5.

5. f - BLOCK ELEMENTS (2 one marks) The most common oxidation state of lanthanides a) +2 b) +1 c) +3 d) +4 The elements in which the extra electron enters (n-2) f orbitals are called a) s – block elements b) d – block elements c) p – block elements d) f – block elements The Lanthanides contraction is due to a) Perfect shielding of 4f electron c) Perfect shielding of 3d electron. b) Imperfect shielding of 4f electron d) Imperfect shielding of 3d electron. Ceria used in a) Toys b) tracer bullets c) gas lamp materials d) none of the above ____ is used in gas lamp material.

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a) MnO2 b) CeO2 c) N2O5 d) Fe2O3 6. Alloys of Lanthanides are called as a) Mish-metals b) Metalloids c) Plate metals d) Actinides 7. _____ form oxocations. a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Noble gases d) Alkali metals 8. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by Lanthanides. a) +1 b) +2 c) +3 d) +4 9. In Lanthanides, with increasing of atomic number the reducing property of elements is ____. a) Increases b) decreases c) no change d) none of these 10. Important Ore of lanthanides is ______. a) Pitch blande b) monazite c) gypsum d) chromite 11. Which one of the lanthanide is radio active? a) Lanthanum b) Promethium c) Cerium d) Samarium 12. The long mission space probes ______ used as power source. a) Pu b) U c) Th d) Pm 13. The common oxidation state of Actinide is _____. a) +2 b) +3 c) +4 d) +6 14. ThO2 is used in ______. a) Toys b) tracer bullets c) gas lamp materials d) dyeing 15. Which is used as fuel in Nuclear power plants? a) Pu – 238 b) U – 235 c) Mo – 95 d) Th - 232 16. The isotope used as a power source in long mission space probes? a) U – 235 b) Pu – 238 c) U – 236 d) I – 131 17. The oxidation state of Uranium in UF6 is a) +6 b) +4 c) +3 d) 0 18. According to Fajan’s rule decrease in size of Ln3+ ion in Ln(OH)3 a) increases the covalent character c) increases the basic character b) decreases the covalent character d) increases the ionic character

1. 2.

3. 4.

5. 6.

7. 8. 9.

6. COORDINATION COMPOUNDS (1 one mark) An example of a chelating ligand is ______. a) NO2b) chloro c) bromo The geometry of complex ion [Fe(CN)6]4- is a) Tetrahedral b) square planar c) octahedral d) triangular The oxidation number of Nickel in the complex ion, [NiCl4)]2- is a) +1 b) -1 c) +2 2The geometry of [NiCN4)] is a) Tetrahedral b) square planar c) octahedral triangular An example of an ambidentate ligand is _____. a) CN‾ b) Cl‾ c) NO2‾ 4 [FeF6] ‾ is paramagnetic because a) F ‾ is a weaker ligand b) F ‾ is a strong ligand b) c) F ‾ is a flexidentate ligand d) F ‾ is a chelating ligand In [Fen(CN)6]4- the central metal ion is a) Fe b) Fe2+ c) Fe3+ The coordination number of Ni(II) in [Ni(CN4)]2- is a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 Paramagnetic moment is expressed in _____.

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d) en

d) -2 d) d) I ‾

d) CN‾ d) 6

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a) Debye unit b) K Joules c) BM d) ergs 10. The type of isomerism found in the complexes [Co(NO2)(NH3)5] SO4 and [Co(SO4)(NH3)5] NO2 a) Hydrate isomerism b) coordination isomerism c) Linkage isomerism d) Ionisation isomerism 11. An example of a chelating ligand is a) NO2b) chloro c) en d) bromo 12. Which one of the following is a cationic complex? a) K4 [Fe(CN)6] b) [Cu(NH3)4]cl2 c) K3 [Cr(C2O4)3] d) K3 [Fe(CN)6] 13. The Co-ordination number of Cr3+ ion in [Cr(H2O)4 Cl2]Cl.2H2O complex is a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 2 14. The type of isomerism found in the complexes [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] and [PtCl4] [Cu(NH3)4] a) Ionization b) Coordination c) linkage d) Ligand 7. NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY(1 one mark) 1. The most penetrating radiations are ______. a) α rays b) β rays c) γ rays d) all are equally penetrating 2. Which one of the following particles is used to bombard 13Al27 to give 15P30 and a neutron a) α particle b) deuteron c) proton d) neutron 8 8 3. The reaction 5B 4Be takes place due to _________. a) α decay b) β decay c) electron capture d) positron decay 4. Radioactivity is due to a) Stable electronic configuration c) Unstable nucleus b) stable nucleus d) Unstable electronic configuration 235 5. 92U nuclear absorbs a neutron and disintegrates into 54Xe139, 38Sr94, and X. What will be the product X? a) 3 neutrons b) 2 neutrons c) α – particle d) β - particle 6. Loss of a β – particle is equivalent to a) Increase of one proton only b) both a & c c) Decrease of one neutron only d) one of these 7. The t ½ of a particular decay is 100 seconds. Its average life is a) 100 Sec b) 200 Sec c) 144 Sec d) 1000 Sec 8. Half-life period of 79Au198 nucleus is 150 days. The average life is a) 26.1 days b) 21.6 days c) 261 days d) 216 days 9. In nuclear reaction _____ is / are balanced on both sides a) Mass b) number of atoms c) mass number d) atomic number & mass number 10. Half-life period of a radioactive element is 1500 years. The value of disintegration constant in terms of seconds is a) 0.1465 x 10-10 sec-1 b) 0.2465 x 10-10 sec-1 c) 0.1465 x 10-8 fsec-1 d) 0.3465 x 10-10 sec-1 11. If t½ is shorter a) Explosive b) poisonous c) unstable d) stable 12. After 24 hours 0.125g of the initial quantity 1 gram of a radio active isotope is left out. The half life period is a) 24 hours b) 12 hours c) 8 hours d) 16 hours 13. When 7N15 is bombared with a proton it gives 6C12 and a) β – particle b) Neutron c) proton d) α – particle PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY 8. SOLID STATE - II (1 one mark) 1. The Bragg’s equation is 7|Page

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www.Padasalai.Net (a)λ= 2d sinθ (b) nd = 2λsinθ (c) 2λ= nd sinθ (d) nλ= 2d sinθ 2. The crystal structure of CsCl is (a) Simple cubic (b) face-centred cubic (c) Tetragonal (d) Body centred cubic 3. An example for Frenkel defect is (a) NaCl (b) AgBr (c) CsCl (d) FeS 4. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negative electrons are called (a) Super conductors (b) n-type semiconductors (c) p-type semiconductors (d) Insulators 5. In the Bragg’s equation for diffraction of X-rays,’n’ represent (a) number of moles (b) Avogadro number (c) A quantum number (d) Order of reflection 6. The number of close neighbours in a body centred cubic lattice of identical spheres is (a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 12 (d) 8 7. An ion leaves its regular site occupies a position in the space between the lattice sites is called -------(a) schottky defect (b) Impurity defect (c) frenkal defect (d) vacancy defect 8. In a simple cubic cell, each point on a corner is shared by (a) One unit cell (b) Two unit cell (c) 8 unit cell (d) 4 unit cell 9. The total number of atoms per unit cell is bcc is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 10. Rutile is (a) TiO2 (b) Cu2O (c) MoS2 (d) Ru 11. An example of metal deficiency defect (a) NaCl (b) AgCl (c) CsCl (d) FeS 12. The co-ordination number of ZnS is ------(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 13. In FCC, the face atom is shared between now many unit cells ? the crystal lattice with coordination number four (a) NaCl (b) CsCl (c) BN (d) ZnO 14. The crystal having Frenkal defect the size of the anion is -----(a) bigger than cation (b) smaller than the cation (c) equal to the cation (d) both are bigger in size 15. How many atoms are there in a unit cell of a metal crystallizing in fcc structure? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 4

9. THERMODYNAMICS – II (2 one marks) 1. The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called a)ΔE b)ΔH c)ΔS d)ΔG 2. All the naturally occuring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to a) decrease of entropy b)increase in enthalpy 8|Page

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c) increase in free energy

d) decrease of free energy

3. In an adiabatic process which of the following is true? a) q = w b) q = 0 c) ΔE = q d) PΔV =0 4. When a liquid boils, there is a) an increase in entropy b) a decrease in entropy c) an increase in heat of vapourisation d) an increase in free energy 5. If ΔG for a reaction is negative, the change is a) Spontaneous b) Non-spontaneous c) Reversible d) Equilibrium 6. Which of the following does not result in an increase in the entropy? a) crystallisation of sucrose from solution b) rusting of iron c) conversion of ice to water d) vaporisation of camphor 7. In which of the following process, the process is always non-feasible? a) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0 b) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0 c) ΔH > 0,ΔS < 0 d) ΔH < 0,ΔS < 0 8. Change in Gibb’s free energy is given by a) ΔG =ΔH + TΔS b)ΔG =ΔH – TΔS c) ΔG =ΔH×TΔS d) None of the above 9. For the reaction 2Cl(g) → Cl2 (g), the signs of ΔH and ΔS respectively are a) +, – b) +, + c) –, – d) –, + 10. According to this rule, the heat of vaporisation (ΔH vap)in calories per mole divided by the boiling point of the liquid in Kelvin is a constant equal to a) 21 cal deg-1mole-1 b) 12 cal deg-1mole-1 c) 212 cal deg-1mole-1 d) 19 cal deg-1mole-1 11. What is the change of entropy for the process, water (liq) to water (vapor, 373K) involving ΔHvap= 40850 Jmol-1 at 373K. a) 22.007 Jmol-1 K -1 b) 7.307 Jmol-1 K -1 c) 109.52 Jmol-1 K -1 d) 2.7 Jmol-1 K -1 12. Thermodynamic condition for irreversible spontaneous process at constant “T’ and ‘P’ is a) ΔG > 0 b) ΔG= 0 c) ΔG < 0 d) b& c 13. What is the entropy change involved in the conversion of 1 mole of ice at0 o C and 1 atm to liquid at 0o C and 1 atm. The enthalpy of fusion per mole of ice is 6008 J mol-1 a) 22.007 Jmol-1 K -1 b) 7.307 Jmol-1 K -1 c) 109.52 Jmol-1 K -1 d) 2.7 Jmol-1 K -1 14. The maximum efficiency % possible from a thermal engine operating between 110°C and 25°C. a) 20% b) 22.2% c) 50% d) 25% 15.The maximum efficiency % possible from a thermal engine operating between 127°C and 27°C ----- a) 20% b) 22% c) 50% d) 25% 16. H2O ( l ) → H2O ( s ) entropy for the process. a) remains constant b) decreases c) increases d) zero 17. Entropy is a ------------ function . a) path b) state c) constant d) no value 18.Free energy (G) and the free energy change (ΔG) correspond to the ------------a) System and surrounding b) Surroundings only c) System only d) all of these 19. A process accompanied by increase in free energy tends to be ------------ process a) Reversible b) Irreversible c) Non spontaneous d) spontaneous 20. In SI unit 1 eu is ------------a) 4.184 EU b) 41.84 EU c) 418.4 EU d) 4184 EU 21. Which one of the following is a State function? a) q b) Δq c) w d) Δs 22. Standard free energies of formation elements are taken as ---------a) positive b) negative c) zero d) a & b 23. Thermodynamic condition for Irreversible spontaneous process at constant ---------9|Page

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www.Padasalai.Net a) ΔG > 0 b) ΔS< 0 c) ΔG < 0 24. The network obtained from a system is given by ------------a) W+P ΔV b) W-P ΔV c) -W+P ΔV 25. The cgs unit of entropy is -----------a) cal K-1 b) J K-1 c) cal mol-1 K-1

d) ΔH > 0 d) -W-P ΔV d) eu mol-1

10. CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM – II (2 one marks) 1. 1. State of chemical equilibrium is: a) Dynamic b) stationery c) none d) both 2. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions are 2A B is K1and B 2A is K2, then a) K1= 2K2 b) K1= 1/K2 c) K2= (K1)2 d) K1= 1/(K2) 2 3. In the reversible reaction 2HI H2+ I2, Kpis a) greater than Kc b) less than Kc c) Equal to Kc d) Zero 4. In the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 2NH3, the maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the process having a) low pressure and high temperature b) low pressure and low temperature c) high temperature and high pressure d) high pressure and low temperature 5. For the homogeneous gas reaction at 600 K4NH3(g) + 5O2 (g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O (g) the equilibrium constant Kc has the unit a) (mol dm-3) -1 b) (mol dm-3) c) (mol dm-3)-10 d) (mol dm-3) -9 6. Two moles of ammonia gas are introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0dm3 vessel in which it partially dissociates at high temperature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibrium constant Kc for the dissociation is a) 27/16 (mole dm-3)2 b) 27/8 (mole dm-3) 2 c) 27/4 (mole dm-3) 2 d) None of these 7. An equilibrium reaction is endothermic if K1and K2are the equilibrium constants at T1and T2 temperatures respectively and if T2is greater than T1then a) K1 is less than K2 b) K1is greater than K2 c) K1is equal to K2 d) None 8. The temperature used in contact process for the manufacture of SO3------a) 400 o - 450o C b) 800 o - 700o C c) 500 o - 550o C d) 350 o - 450o C 9. When reaction Q < Kc --------- is favoured. a) forward reaction b) reverse reaction c) forward and reverse reaction d) equilibrium is favoured. 10.The fraction of total number of moles of reactants dissociated is called ---------a) dissociation equilibrium b) degree of dissociation c) degree of association d) dissociation constant 11. The maximum yield of ammonia in haber’s process is nealy a) 47% b) 73% c) 27% d) 37% 12. The rate constant of the forward reaction and reverse reaction are 8X10-5 and 2X10-4 respectively. The Kc is – a) 0.004 b) 0.02 c) 0.2 d) 0.4 13. Which one of the following equilibrium, when increase of temperature favours forward reaction? a) N2 + 3H2 2NH3, ΔH = -22KJ mol-1 10 | P a g e

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www.Padasalai.Net b) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3, ΔH = -47KJ mol-1 c) N2 O4 2NO2, ΔH = +59KJ mol-1 d) b & c 14. The equilibrium constant Kc for a A(g) B (g) is 2.5x10-2 the rate constant of forward reaction is 0.05 sec-1 . therefore, the rate constant of the reverse reaction is -----------a) 2sec-1 b) 2 sec c) 2 min d) 0.2 min 15. Forward reaction takes place when -------a) Kc=1/Q b) Q>Kc c) Q=Kc d) Q Kc d) Kp+ Kc/2 20. In which of the following equilibrium Δng= (-ve) a) H2+ I2 2HI b) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 c) 2H2O + 2Cl2 4HCl + O2 d) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 21.The unit of Kp for the equilibrium when NH3 is synthesized from N2 and H2 -----a) L-2 mol -2 b) atm -2 c) L atm -2 d) atm -1 22. The Kc for the equilibrium H2+ I2 2HI is 16 what is Kp for this equilibrium a) 1/16 b) 4 c) 64 d) 16 23. In the equilibrium constant for the formation of a products is 25. The equilibrium constant for the decomposition of the same product is ---------a) 25 b) 1/25 c) 5 d) 625 24. For the equilibrium 2H2O + 2Cl2 4HCl + O2 Kp and Kc are related as -------------a) Kp = Kc b) Kp < Kc c) Kp > Kc d) Kp = Kc(RT) -2 25. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2A B is 25 mol-1 dm-3 at 900K. What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction B 2A in dm-3 mol at the same temperature ? a) 25 b) 625 c) 0.04 d) 0.4

11. CHEMICAL KINETICS - II (1 one mark) 1. Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCl is an example for (a) second order reaction (b) zero order reaction (c) pseudo first order reaction (d) first order reaction 2. The excess energy which a molecule must posses to become active is known as (a) kinetic energy (b) threshold energy (c) potential energy (d) activation energy 3. Arrhenius equation is (a) k= Ae–1/RT (b) k= Ae–RT/Ea (c) k= Ae -Ea/RT Ea/RT (d) k= Ae 11 | P a g e

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4. The term A in Arrhenius equation is called as (a) Probability factor (b) Activation of energy (c) Collision factor (d) Frequency factor 5. The sum of the powers of the concentration terms that occur in the rate equation is called (a) molecularity (b) order (c) rate (d) rate constant 6. Reactions in which the reacting molecules react in more than one way yielding different set of products are called (a) consecutive reactions (b) parallel reactions (c) opposing reactions (d) chain reactions 7. The half life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. Then its rate constant is (a) 6.93 ×102Min-1 (b) 0.693 ×10–2 min-1 (c) 6.932 ×10–2 min-1 (d) 69.3 ×10–1min–1 8. For a reaction : aA  bB, the rate of reaction is doubled when the concentration of A is increased by four times. The rate of reaction is equal to (a) k[A]a (b) k [A]½ (c) k[A]1/a (d) k[A] 5 –1 9. For a reaction, Ea= 0 and k= 4.2 ×10 sec at 300K, the value of k at 310K will be (a) 4.2 ×10 5sec–1 (b) 8.4 ×105sec–1 (c) 8.4 ×10–5 sec–1 (d) unpredictable 10. Decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 medium is an example of ----------- order reaction . (a) second (b) first (c) third (d) zero 11. When Ea is greater, the rate of the reaction is ---------(a) greater (b) slower (c) moderate (d) maximum 12. The half life period of a first order reaction is 100 minutes, The rate constant of the reaction is -----------(a) 6.93 ×103Min-1 (b) 0.693 ×10–3 min-1 (c) 6.93 ×10–3 min-1 (d) 69.3 ×10–2min–1 13. The rate constant of the first order reaction is 0.0693 min-1 The half life period of the reaction is ------- (a) 10 min (b) 1 min (c) 100 min (d) 50 min 14. The half life period of a first order reaction is 20 mins then the time required for 99% completion of the reaction (a) 20min (b) 2000 min (c) 250 sec (d) 200 min 15. The unit of Activation energy is ---------(a) KJ mol-1 (b) JK-1 mol-1 (c) Kg mol-1 (d) K-1 mol-1 12. SURFACE CHEMISTRY (3 one marks) 1. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field is known as (a) electroosmosis (b) Dialysis (c) electrodialysis (d) electrophoresis 2. Which one is the correct factor that explains the increase of rate of reaction by a catalyst (a) shape selectivity (b) particle size (c) increase of free energy (d) lowering of activation energy 3. Fog is a colloidal solution of (a) gas in liquid (b) liquid in gas (c) gas in solid (d) solid in gas. 4. The phenomenon of Tyndall’s effect is not observed in (a) emulsion (b) colloidal solution (c) true solution (d) None 5. The Tyndall’s effect associated with colloidal particles is due to (a) presence of charge (b) scattering of light (c) absorption of light (d) reflection of light 6. In case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when (a) temperature increases (b) temperature decreases (c) pressure increases (d) concentration increases 7. Colloidal medicines are more effective because (a) they are clean (b) they are easy to prepare (c) the germs more towards, them (d) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed 8. For chemisorptions, which is wrong 12 | P a g e

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(a) irreversible (b) it requires activation energy (c) it forms multimolecular layers on absorbent (d) surface compounds are formed 9. An emulsion is a colloidal solution of (a) two solids (b) two liquids (c) two gases (d) one solid and one liquid 10. Colloids are purified by (a) precipitation (b) coagulation (c) dialysis (d) filtration 11. Decomposition of H2O2in presence of colloidal platinum is also------ catalysis (a) positive (b) negative (c) Auto (d) induced 12. The Auto catalyst used in the oxidation of oxalic acid by acidified KMnO4 is ----------(a) MnSO4 (b) Glycerine (c) alcohol (d) K2SO4 13. The sky looks blue due to -------------- of light (a) Adsorption (b) Dispersion (c) Scattering (d) Reflection 14. The emulsifying Agent used in O/W emulsion is ----------(a) Protein (b) long chain alcohol (c) lamp black (d) heavy metal salt of fatty acids 15. A silver sol used as an eye lotion is (a) Milk of magnesia (b) argentite (c) argyrol (d) silver chloride 16.The oxidation of sodium sulphide by air retarded by -----(a) MnO2 (b) H2S (c) Alcohol (d) As2O3 17. The catalyst used for the decomposition of KClO3 is ---(a) MnO2 (b) Cl2 (c) V2O5 (d) Pt 18. The wrong statement regarding characteristics of a catalyst--(a) Only a small quantity (b) can initiate a reaction (c) specific (d) unchanged in mass and composition 19. Emulsifying agent is used for-----------(a) Precipitation (b) Absorption (c) stabilization (d) none of these 20. Coconut charcoal has a greater capacity of the -------- gases (a) Absorption (b) Adsorption (c) desorption (d) all of these 21. Which one of the following act as catalyst poision in Haber’s process (a) finely divided iron (b) molybdenum (c) hydrogen sulphide (d) platinum 22. Which one of the following act as catalyst poison in contact process? (a) Platinum (b) H2S (c) Mo (d) As2O3 23. Which one of the following is an example for lyophobic colloid? (a) Sulphur in water (b) Gelatin (c) Protein (d) Starch 24. Which one of the following is used for stomach disorder? (a) argyrol (b) potash alum (c) milk of magnesia (d) colloidal gold 25.silica gel is utilized for the --------------------- of number of gases. (a) Absorption (b) Adsorption (c) desorption (d) all of these 26. The function of FeCl3 in the conversion of Fe(OH)3 precipitate into a colloid is --(a) reducing agent (b) emulsifying agent (c) precipitating agent (d) peptizing agent 27. The decomposition H2O2 is decreased in the presence of -------(a) alcohol (b) Mo (c)MnO2 (d) Glycerine 28.Curd is a colloidal solution of ----------(a) gas in liquid (b) liquid in liquid (c) liquid in solid (d) solid in gas 29. The catalyst used for the preparation chlorine by Deacons process(a)NO (b)CuCl2 (c)Fe (d) Ni 13. ELECTRO CHEMISTRY - II(1 one mark) 1. When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode is equal to............... 13 | P a g e

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(a) equivalent weight (c) electro chemical equivalent (b) molecular weight (d) one gram 2. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to (a) atomic number of the cation (b) atomic number of the anion (c)equivalent weight(substance liberated)of the electrolyte (d) speed of the cation 3. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 25oC is 80 ohm-1cm2eq-1 and at infinite dilution 400 ohm-1cm2eq-1 The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is ............... (a) 1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.3 4. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionisation of acetic acid ............... (a) increases (b) decreases (c) does not change (d) becomes zero 5. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of ............... (a) CH3COOH (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) H2SO4 6. When 10–6mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent, the pH of the solution is .............. (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) less than 6 (d) more than 7 7. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in mol L-1 is ............. (a) 1 ×10–12 (b) 1 ×10–2 (c) 1 ×10–7 (d) 1 ×10–4 8. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is .......... (a) 1 (b) 10–1 (c) 13 (d) 10–13 9. For the titration between oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide, the indicator used in ........... (a) potassium permanganate (b) phenolphthalein (c) litmus (d) methyl orange 10. The indicator used in the titration of NH4OH with HCl is (a) potassium permanganate (b) phenolphthalein (c) litmus (d) methyl orange ORGANIC CHEMISTRY 16. HYDROXY DERIVATIVES (1 one mark) 1. Order of reactivity of alcohols towards sodium metal is a) Primary < secondary > tertiary b) Primary < secondary < tertiary c) Primary > secondary > tertiary d) Primary > secondary < tertiary 2. A compound that gives a positive iodoform test is a) 1- pentanol b) 2 – pentanone c) 3 – pentanone d) pentanal 3. A compound that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent is a) butan – 1 – ol b) butan – 2-ol c) 2- methyl propan – 1 – old) 2-methyl propan -2- ol 4. When phenol is distilled with Zn dust it gives a) Benzaldehyde b) Benzoic acid c) Toluene d) Benzene 5. A compound that undergoes bromination easily is __________. a) Benzoic acid b) Benzene c) phenol d) Toluene 6. Ethylene diamine is converted to ethylene glycol using a) Na2CO3 solution b) nitrous acid c) NaHCO3 (aqueous) d) Baeyer’s reagent 7. Glycerol is used a) As a sweetening agent c) in the manufacture of nitro glycerin b) in the manufacture of good quality soap d) all the above 8. A number of secondary alcoholic group in glycerol is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0 9. The active component of dynamite is a) Keiselghur b) Nitro glycerine c) Nitro benzene d) tri nitro toluene 10. The reaction of ethylene glycol with PI3 gives a) ICH2 CH2I b) CH2═CH2 c) CH2═CHI d)ICH═CHI 11. 1 – proponal and methoxy ethane are a) Chain isomers b) position isomers c) functional isomers d) metamers 12. The characteristic odour of lower phenols is a) Carbolic acid b) fruity c) oil of bitter almonds d) rotten fish 14 | P a g e

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13. Identify the compound that is used in the treatment of asthma and whooping cough ____. a) Benzyl acetate b) phenyl acetate c)Benzyl benzoate d) phenyl benzoate 14. Oxidation of glycerol with Bismuth nitrate gives a) Meso – oxalic acid b)glyceric acid c) tartonic acid d) a & c 17. ETHERS (2 one marks) 1. Which one of the following is simple ether? a) CH3 – O – C2H5 b)C2H5 – O – CH3 c) C2H5 – O – C2H5 d) C3H7 – O – C2H5 2. Diethyl ether can be decomposed with a) HI b) KMnO4 c) NaOH d) H2O 3. Oxygen atom of ether is a) Very active b) replaceable c) oxidizing d) comparatively inert 4. `according to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are a) Neutral b) acidic c) basic d) amphoteric 5. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are present in a) CH3COOH b) C2H5O C2H5 c) CH3CH2OH d) C2H5NH2 6. When ethyl iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms a) Ethyl alcohol b) diethyl ether c) silver ethoxide d) ethyl methyl ether 7. Williamson’s synthesis is an example of a) Nucleophilic addition c) electrophilic substitution b)Electrophilic addition d) nucleophilic substitution 8. When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance produced is a) Peroxide b) oxide c) TNT d) superoxide 9. Ether is formed when alkylhalide is treated with sodium alkoxide. This method is known as a) Hoffmann reaction b) Williamson’s synthesis c) Wurtz synthesis d) Kolbe’s reaction 10. Higher ethers can be prepared from lower members by the action of a) con.H2SO4 b) AgOH c) sodium alkoxide d) Grignard reagent 11. Ethers dissolve in con.H2SO4 due to the formation of a) Peroxides b) ethyl hydrogen sulphate c) oxonium salts d) alcohols 12. Which reagent is used in the Zeisel’s method of detection and estimation of alkoxy groups? a) RMgx b) O2 c) Con H2SO4 d) HI 13. Which one of the following is simple ether? a) CH3 – O – CH3 b) C3H7 – O – C3H7 c) C2H5 – O – CH3 d) C6H5 – O – C6H5 14. How many alcohol isomers are possible for the formula C2H10O? a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 7 15. Identify the best solvent for Grignard reagent ______. a) Alcohol b) water c) CO2 d) ether 16. Which one of the following is formed when anisole reacts with bromine? a) m – bromo anisole b) o – bromo anisole c) o & p – bromo anisole d) benzoid acid 17. How many ethers isomers are possible for the formula C2H10O? a) One b) two c) three d) seven 18. When diethyl ethers reacts with cl2 in presence of sunlight it gives a) α-chlorodiethyl ether b) α-α 1 dlichloro diethylether c) Perchloro diethyl chloro d) both a&b 19. _____ is used as a substitute for petrol a) Diethylether c) diethylether mixed with alcohol b) ether with NH3 d) diethylether with naphthalene 15 | P a g e

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20. Reaction in which oxonium salt is formed when etherial oxgyen reacts with strong mineral acid is called a) Electronation b) protonation c) deprotonation d) dehydration 21. Ether used in perfumery is a) Diethylether b) dimethylether c) methyl phenyl ethe d) diphenylether 22. The IUPAC name of phenatole is a) Ethyl phenyl ether b) methylphenyl ether c) diethyl ether d) ethoxy benzene 18. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS(1 one mark) 1. Schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with a) Acetone b) acetaldehyde c) ethyl alcohol d) methyl acetate 2. Methyl ketones are usually characterized by a) the Feling’s solution b) the iodoform test c) the Schiff’s test d) the Tollen’s reagent 3. Which of the following compounds is oxidized to give ethyl methyl ketone? a) 2 – praponal b) 2 – pentanone c) 1 – butanol d) 2 - butanol 4. The compound that does not undergo Canizaro reaction is a) Formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) benzaldehyde d) trimethyl acetaldehyde 5. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of a) Electrophilic addition c) nucleophilic substitution b) nucleophilic addition d) electrophilic substitution 6. Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in the presence of Pd on BaSO4 gives a) Phenol b) benzoic acid c)benzyl alcohol d) benzaldehyde 7. From which of the following tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium iodide? a) HCHO b) CH3CHO c) CH3COCH3 d) CO2 8. Aldol is a) 2 – hydroxyl butane b) 3 – hydroxyl butanol c) 3 – hydroxyl butanal d) 2 – hydroxyl butanal 9. A cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis gives lactic acid. The X is a) HCHO b) CH3CHO c) (CH3)2CO d) C6H5CH2CHO 10. Which of the following does not give iodoform test? a) Aceto phenone b) benzophenone c) CH3–CH–(OH)–CH2 d) CH3–CH(OH)-HC2CH2–CH3 11. The compound which does not reduce fehling solution is a) Formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) benzaldehyde d) propionaldehyde 12. CH3COCH3con.H2SO4 product. The product is a) Mesitylene b) mesityl oxide c) phorone d) paraldehyde 13. The compound used in the preparation of the tranquilizer, sulphonal is a) Acetone b) acetophenone c) isopropyl alcohol d) glycol distillation 14. Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate gives a) Benzophenone b) benzaldehyde c) acetophenone d) phenyl benzoate 19. CARBOXYLIC ACIDS(1 one mark) 1. Which of the following is least acidic? a)C2H5OH b) CH3COOH c) C6H5OH d) ClCH2COOH 2. The acid which reduces Tollen’s reagent is a) Acetic acid b) benzoic acid c) formic acid d) oxalic acid 3. The isomerism exhibited by CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOCH2 is 16 | P a g e

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a) Metamerism b) position c) chain d) functional 4. The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard regent a) Acetic acid b) formic acid c) butyric acid d) benzoic acid 5. Which order of arrangement is correct in terms of the strength of the acid a) CH3CH2COOH>CH3COOHCH3NH2>NH3 d) NH3> (CH3)2NH >CH3NH2 34. Aniline reacts with benzoyl chloride in the presence of sodium hydroxide and gives benzanilide. This reaction is known as a) Gattermann reaction c) Schotten – Baumann b) Sandmeyer’s reaction d) Gomberg – Bachmann reaction 18 | P a g e

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21. BIO MOLECULES (2 one marks) 1. Identify the reducing sugar a) Sucrose b) cellulose c) starch d) glucose 2. Sucrose contains glucose and fructose linked by a) C1- C1 b)C1- C2 c) C1- C4 d) C1- C6 3. Glucose is not oxidized to gluconic acid by a) Br2 / H2O b) Fehling reaction c) Tollen’s reagent d) con.HNO3 4. Inversion of sucrose refers to a) Oxidization of sucrose c) hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose b) Reduction of sucrose d) polymerization of sucrose 5. Glucose forms ____ with acetic anhydride and sodium acetate. a) di acetate b) tetra acetate c) penta acetate d) hexa acetate 6. The amino acid without chiral carbon is ____. a) Glycine b) alamine c) proline d) thyrosine 7. The building blocks of proteins are ______. a) α – hydroxy acids b) α – amino acids c) β - hydroxy acids d) β - amino acids 8. Which is not true of amino acid? a) Amino acid forms Zwitter ion c) dual behaviours b) Amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution d) has isoelectric point 9. A dipeptide does not have a) Two peptide units c) an amino group b) Portions of two amino acids d) salt like structure 10. Ultimate products of hydrolysis of proteins is a) Aniline b) aliphatic acid c) amino acid d) aromatic acid 11. Important constituent of cell walls is a) Lipid b) cellulose c) protein d) vitamin 12. Sorbital and Manitol are a) Isomers b) epimers c) polymers d) dimers 13. A mixture of D (+) glucose and D (-)fructose is known as a) Cane sugar b) sweetless sugar c) invert sugar d) starchsugar 14. Starch when heated to 200 – 250ᵒC changes into a) Dextrin b) glucose c) fructose d) cellulose 15. __________ is involved in the Process of Blood Congulation. a) Fats& Oils b) Lecithins c) Glycolipids d) Cephallin 16. An example for reducing disaccharides a) Lactose b) Fructose c) Sucrose d) `glucose

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